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156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from ‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

Options:

A.

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

B.

The Access Control Policy.

C.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

D.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

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Questions 5

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Options:

A.

Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes.

B.

When Joe logs in. Bob will be logged out automatically.

C.

The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.

D.

Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.

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Questions 6

Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

Options:

A.

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

B.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

C.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

D.

The Gaia operating system only.

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Questions 7

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

Options:

A.

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

B.

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

C.

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

D.

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

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Questions 8

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

Options:

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

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Questions 9

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Questions 10

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

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Questions 11

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

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Questions 12

Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate with the gateway

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

CCP

C.

TDP

D.

HTTP

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Questions 13

When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

B.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

C.

Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.

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Questions 14

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

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Questions 15

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

Options:

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

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Questions 16

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Options:

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

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Questions 17

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Questions 18

Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.

Options:

A.

DLP shared policy

B.

Geo policy shared policy

C.

Mobile Access software blade

D.

HTTPS inspection

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Questions 19

Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Anti-Malware

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Threat Extraction

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Questions 20

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

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Questions 21

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Questions 22

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

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Questions 23

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked

C.

Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab

D.

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

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Questions 24

Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

Options:

A.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom's changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom's changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

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Questions 25

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

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Questions 26

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Questions 27

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Questions 28

Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Save Policy

B.

Install Database

C.

Save session

D.

Install Policy

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Questions 29

Log query results can be exported to what file format?

Options:

A.

Word Document (docx)

B.

Comma Separated Value (csv)

C.

Portable Document Format (pdf)

D.

Text (txt)

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Questions 30

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge Mode

D.

Targeted

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Questions 31

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

True, every administrator works on a different database that Is independent of the other administrators

B.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

C.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission

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Questions 32

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Three

C.

Two

D.

Infinite

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Questions 33

R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Version R75 and higher

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Questions 34

When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Options:

A.

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

B.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

C.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

D.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

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Questions 35

What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Endpoint Security Client

B.

Full Agent

C.

Light Agent

D.

System Agent

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Questions 36

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

Options:

A.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_di and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks

B.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.

C.

Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring

D.

All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.

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Questions 37

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

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Questions 38

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

Options:

A.

Different computers or appliances.

B.

The same computer or appliance.

C.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

D.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

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Questions 39

What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate installation

B.

DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

C.

USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

D.

Cloud based installation

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Questions 40

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage & Settings

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway & Servers

D.

Logs & Monitor

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Questions 41

What are two basic rules Check Point recommending for building an effective security policy?

Options:

A.

Accept Rule and Drop Rule

B.

Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule

C.

Explicit Rule and Implied Rule

D.

NAT Rule and Reject Rule

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Questions 42

Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fwaccel stats

D.

fw ctl templates –d

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Questions 43

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

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Questions 44

Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Options:

A.

All options stop Check Point processes

B.

backup

C.

migrate export

D.

snapshot

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Questions 45

Where can alerts be viewed?

Options:

A.

Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor

B.

Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.

C.

Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.

D.

Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

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Questions 46

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Application Control, DLP

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

C.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

D.

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

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Questions 47

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

Options:

A.

URL Filtering and Network

B.

Network and Threat Prevention

C.

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.

Network and Application Control

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Questions 48

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

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Questions 49

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

Log server

C.

SmartEvent

D.

Multi-domain management server

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Questions 50

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Options:

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

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Questions 51

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

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Questions 52

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot protection

B.

Anti-Malware protection

C.

Policy-based routing

D.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

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Questions 53

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

Antivirus

C.

Application Control

D.

NAT

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Questions 54

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES-128

C.

DES

D.

AES-256

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Questions 55

Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

Options:

A.

Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways

B.

The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways

C.

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

D.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

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Questions 56

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

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Questions 57

Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?

Options:

A.

Networks

B.

Users

C.

Time

D.

Machines

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Questions 58

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Verify a Security Policy

B.

Open a terminal shell

C.

Add a static route

D.

View Security Management GUI Clients

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Questions 59

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.

Options:

A.

Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security

B.

Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

C.

Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

D.

Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management

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Questions 60

Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Central

B.

Corporate

C.

Local

D.

Formal

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Questions 61

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Revisions

B.

Gateway installations

C.

Installation history

D.

Gateway history

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Questions 62

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

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Questions 63

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

Options:

A.

Central and Local.

B.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

C.

On-premise and Public Cloud.

D.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

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Questions 64

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Options:

A.

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

B.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

C.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

D.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

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Questions 65

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

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Questions 66

The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Options:

A.

Major version upgrades to R77.30

B.

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

C.

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

D.

All upgrades

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Questions 67

Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

Options:

A.

src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

B.

src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

C.

192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop

D.

192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

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Questions 68

In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.

B.

Processing and sending alerts such as SNMP traps and email notifications.

C.

Verify and compile Security Policies.

D.

Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.

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Questions 69

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Questions 70

AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole What does it mean if AdmmB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published

B.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the rule is currently being edited

C.

Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available

D.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the save button has not been pressed

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Questions 71

Fill in the blank When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management it is then referred to as_____

Options:

A.

User Center

B.

User Administration

C.

User Directory

D.

UserCheck

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Questions 72

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Options:

A.

Logs & Monitoring

B.

Smart Event

C.

Gateways & Severs Tab

D.

SmartView Monitor

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Questions 73

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Options:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

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Questions 74

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

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Questions 75

Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

Options:

A.

You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

B.

You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers

C.

Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers.

D.

You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

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Questions 76

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

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Questions 77

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 78

With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

Options:

A.

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

B.

The IP address of the source machine.

C.

The end user credentials.

D.

The host portion of the URL.

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Questions 79

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

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Questions 80

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

IP pool NAT static NAT. hide NAT

B.

Static NAT hide NAT, IP pool NAT

C.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT hide NAT

D.

Static NAT automatic NAT hide NAT

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Questions 81

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

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Questions 82

Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

Options:

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Questions 83

True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

Options:

A.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

B.

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

C.

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

D.

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

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Questions 84

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

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Questions 85

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Next-Generation Firewall

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

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Questions 86

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

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Questions 87

Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?

Options:

A.

CPASE - Check Point Automatic Service Engine

B.

CPAUE - Check Point Automatic Update Engine

C.

CPDAS - Check Point Deployment Agent Service

D.

CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

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Questions 88

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

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Questions 89

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge

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Questions 90

What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

Options:

A.

Source

B.

Static

C.

Hide

D.

Destination

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Questions 91

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

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Questions 92

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

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Questions 93

What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges of a root user?

Options:

A.

User ID 1

B.

User ID 2

C.

User ID 0

D.

User ID 99

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Questions 94

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Options:

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

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Questions 95

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

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Questions 96

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Advanced Networking Blade

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Questions 97

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

Options:

A.

Application database

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application-Forensic Database

D.

Application Library

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Questions 98

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Options:

A.

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

C.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

D.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

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Questions 99

Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

Options:

A.

SHA-256

B.

SHA-200

C.

MD5

D.

SHA-128

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Questions 100

Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

Options:

A.

Five

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

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Questions 101

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

Options:

A.

Standalone

B.

Remote

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Questions 102

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

B.

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

C.

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

D.

Only one rule is required for each connection.

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Questions 103

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

Options:

A.

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

B.

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

D.

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

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Questions 104

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Questions 105

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Logging and Status

D.

Monitoring

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Questions 106

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Options:

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

B.

Static NAT

C.

Static Route

D.

HTTPS Inspection

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Questions 107

Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

Options:

A.

Log

B.

Full Log

C.

Detailed Log

D.

Extended Log

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Questions 108

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Options:

A.

Limit

B.

Resource

C.

Custom Application / Site

D.

Network Object

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Questions 109

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.

SmartDashboard

B.

SmartEvent

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartUpdate

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Questions 110

Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Options:

A.

Formal; corporate

B.

Local; formal

C.

Local; central

D.

Central; local

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Questions 111

Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

Options:

A.

the user connects and authenticates

B.

office mode is initiated

C.

the user requests a connection

D.

the user connects

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Questions 112

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

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Questions 113

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Application Control and URL Filtering

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Anti-virus

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Questions 114

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

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Questions 115

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

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Questions 116

Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Options:

A.

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

B.

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

C.

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

D.

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

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Questions 117

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

The Gateway is an SMB device

B.

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

D.

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

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Questions 118

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

Options:

A.

Inspection Policies

B.

Shared Policies

C.

Unified Policies

D.

Standard Policies

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Questions 119

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

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Questions 120

Examine the sample Rule Base.

What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

No errors or Warnings

B.

Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

C.

Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)

D.

Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

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Exam Code: 156-215.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
Last Update: Dec 4, 2024
Questions: 400
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