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250-580 Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Questions and Answers

Questions 4

How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?

Options:

A.

Edit theServer Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change theServer Communication Permission.

B.

Edit theCommunication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

C.

EdittheExternal Communication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

D.

Edit theSite Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change the server priority.

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Questions 5

Which client log shows that a client is downloading content from its designated source?

Options:

A.

Risk Log

B.

System Log

C.

SesmLu.log

D.

Log.LiveUpdate

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Questions 6

Which action must a Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take before creating custom Intrusion Prevention signatures?

Options:

A.

Change the custom signature order

B.

Create a Custom Intrusion Prevention Signature library

C.

Define signature variables

D.

Enable signature logging

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Questions 7

An organization identifies a threat in its environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?

Options:

A.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file fingerprint.

B.

Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device ID type.

C.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching.

D.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific arguments.

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Questions 8

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

Options:

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

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Questions 9

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

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Questions 10

In what order should an administrator configure the integration between SEDR and Symantec Endpoint Protection in order to maximize their benefits?

Options:

A.

Synapse, ECC, then Insight Proxy

B.

ECC, Synapse, then Insight Proxy

C.

Insight Proxy, Synapse, then ECC

D.

ECC, Insight Proxy, then Synapse

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Questions 11

What does an Endpoint Activity Recorder (EAR) full dump consist of?

Options:

A.

All of the recorded events that occurred on an endpoint relating to a single file

B.

All of the recorded events that occurred on an endpoint relating to a single process

C.

All of the recorded events that occurred on an endpoint

D.

All of the recorded events that are in the SEDR database

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Questions 12

What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?

Options:

A.

It prevents attackers from reading the contents of the Domain Admins Group.

B.

It assigns a fake NTLM password hash value for users with an assigned AdminCount attribute.

C.

It exposes attackers as they seek to gather credential information from workstation memory.

D.

It acts as a honeypot to expose attackers as they attempt to build their AD treasure map

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Questions 13

Which technique randomizes the memory address map with Memory Exploit Mitigation?

Options:

A.

ForceDEP

B.

SEHOP

C.

ASLR

D.

ROPHEAP

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Questions 14

The Behavioral Heat Map indicates that a specific application and a specific behavior are never used together. What action can be safely set for the application behavior in a Behavioral Isolation policy?

Options:

A.

Deny

B.

Allow

C.

Delete

D.

Monitor

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Questions 15

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

Options:

A.

Level 6

B.

Level 5

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 1

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Questions 16

What does an end-user receive when an administrator utilizes the Invite User feature to distribute the SES client?

Options:

A.

An email with the SES_setup.zip file attached

B.

An email with a link to register on the ICDm user portal

C.

An email with a link to directly download the SES client

D.

An email with a link to a KB article explaining how to install the SES Agent

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Questions 17

How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?

Options:

A.

Edit theServer Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change theServer Communication Permission.

B.

Edit theCommunication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

C.

EdittheExternal Communication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

D.

Edit theSite Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change the server priority.

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Questions 18

What EDR feature provides endpoint activity recorder data for a file hash?

Options:

A.

Process Dump

B.

Entity Dump

C.

Hash Dump

D.

Full Dump

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Questions 19

The Security Status on the console home page is failing to alert a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator when virus definitions are out of date.

How should the SEP administrator enable the Security Status alert?

Options:

A.

Lower the Security Status thresholds

B.

Raise the Security Status thresholds

C.

Change the Notifications setting to "Show all notifications"

D.

Change the Action Summary display to "By number of computers"

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Questions 20

What must be entered before downloading a file from ICDm?

Options:

A.

Name

B.

Password

C.

Hash

D.

Date

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Questions 21

The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).

How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?

Options:

A.

10

B.

20

C.

30

D.

60

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Questions 22

An administrator notices that some entries list that the Risk was partially removed. The administrator needs to determine whether additional steps are necessary to remediate the threat.

Where in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console can the administrator find additional information on the risk?

Options:

A.

Risk log

B.

Computer Status report

C.

Notifications

D.

Infected and At-Risk Computers report

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Questions 23

What type of Threat Defense for Active Directory alarms are displayed after domain misconfigurations or hidden backdoors are detected?

Options:

A.

Computer Information Gathering

B.

Pass-The-Ticket

C.

Credential Theft

D.

Dark Corners

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Questions 24

In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

The deleted file may still be in the Recycle Bin.

B.

IT Analytics may keep a copy of the file for investigation.

C.

False positives may delete legitimate files.

D.

Insight may back up the file before sending it to Symantec.

E.

A copy of the threat may still be in the quarantine.

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Questions 25

What information is required to calculate retention rate?

Options:

A.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

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Questions 26

When are events generated within SEDR?

Options:

A.

When an incident is selected

B.

When an activityoccurs

C.

When any event is opened

D.

When entities are viewed

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Questions 27

What does the MITRE ATT&CK Matrix consist of?

Options:

A.

Problems and Solutions

B.

Attackers and Techniques

C.

Tactics and Techniques

D.

Entities and Tactics

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Questions 28

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

System Lockdown

C.

Application Control

D.

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

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Questions 29

Which protection technology can detect botnet command and control traffic generated on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client machine?

Options:

A.

Insight

B.

SONAR

C.

Risk Tracer

D.

Intrusion Prevention

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Questions 30

What are the two (2) locations where an Incident Responder should gather data for an After Actions Report in SEDR? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Incident Manager

B.

Policies

C.

Syslog

D.

Action Manager

E.

Endpoint Search

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Questions 31

Which SES security control protects a user against data leakage if they encounter a man-in-the-middle attack?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Tunneling

B.

IPS

C.

Firewall

D.

VPN

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Questions 32

An administrator decides to migrate an SES Complete hybrid environment to a fully cloud-managed one. After cleaning up on-premise group structure and policies. What is the next recommended step for migration?

Options:

A.

Export unique policies from SEPM

B.

Enroll the SEPM in ICDm

C.

Migrate the agents from ICDm

DImport unique policies in ICDm

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Questions 33

What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?

Options:

A.

It prevents attackers from reading the contents of the Domain Admins Group.

B.

It assigns a fake NTLM password hash value for users with an assigned AdminCount attribute.

C.

It exposes attackers as they seek to gather credential information from workstation memory.

D.

It acts as a honeypot to expose attackers as they attempt to build their AD treasure map

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Questions 34

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

System Lockdown

C.

Application Control

D.

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

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Questions 35

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

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Questions 36

What is an appropriate use of a file fingerprint list?

Options:

A.

Allow unknown files to be downloaded with Insight

B.

Prevent programs from running

C.

Prevent Antivirus from scanning a file

D.

Allow files to bypass Intrusion Prevention detection

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Questions 37

Which type of event does operation:1indicate in a SEDR database search?

Options:

A.

File Deleted.

B.

File Closed.

C.

File Open.

D.

File Created.

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Questions 38

An administrator is troubleshooting a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) replication.

Which component log should the administrator check to determine whether the communication between the two sites is working correctly?

Options:

A.

Apache Web Server

B.

Tomcat

C.

SQL Server

D.

Group Update Provider (GUP)

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Questions 39

An organization is considering a single site for their Symantec Endpoint Protection environment. What are two (2) reasons that the organization should consider? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Organizational merger

B.

Sufficient WAN bandwidth

C.

Delay-free, centralized reporting

D.

24x7 admin availability

E.

E.Legal constraints

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Questions 40

What protection technologies should an administrator enable to protect against Ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Firewall, Host Integrity, System Lockdown

B.

IPS, SONAR, and Download Insight

C.

IPS, Firewall, System Lockdown

D.

SONAR, Firewall, Download Insight

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Questions 41

What does a medium-priority incident indicate?

Options:

A.

The incident may have an impact on the business

B.

The incident can result in a business outage

C.

The incident does not affect critical business operation

D.

The incident can safely be ignored

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Questions 42

What permissions does the Security Analyst Role have?

Options:

A.

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, enroll new sites

B.

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, get & quarantine files

C.

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, create device groups

D.

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, create policies

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Questions 43

Which security control is complementary to IPS, providing a second layer of protection against network attacks?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

Network Protection

C.

Antimalware

D.

Firewall

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Questions 44

What happens when an administrator adds a file to the deny list?

Options:

A.

The file is assigned to a chosen Deny List policy

B.

The file is assigned to the Deny List task list

C.

The file is automatically quarantined

D.

The file is assigned to the default Deny List policy

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Questions 45

Which report template type should an administrator utilize to create a daily summary of network threats detected?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention Report

B.

Blocked Threats Report

C.

Network Risk Report

D.

Access Violation Report

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Exam Code: 250-580
Exam Name: Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist
Last Update: Nov 23, 2024
Questions: 150
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