CAS-005 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Implementing digital signatures ensures the integrity and authenticity of software binaries. When a binary is digitally signed, any tampering with the file (e.g., replacing it with a malicious version) would invalidate the signature. This allows systems to verify the origin and integrity of binaries before execution, preventing the execution of unauthorized or compromised binaries.

A. Improving patching processes: While important, this does not directly address the issue of verifying the integrity of binaries.

B. Implementing digital signatures: This ensures that only valid, untampered binaries are executed, preventing attackers from substituting legitimate binaries with malicious ones.

C. Performing manual updates via USB ports: This is not practical and does not scale well, especially in large environments.

D. Allowing only files from internal sources: This reduces the risk but does not provide a mechanism to verify the integrity of binaries.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-57, "Recommendation for Key Management"

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on code signing

The log-in activity indicates a security threat, particularly involving the ADMIN account with a high-risk failure status. This suggests that the account may be targeted by malicious activities such as credential stuffing or brute force attacks.

Updating log configuration settings (A) may help in better logging future activities but does not address the immediate threat.

Changing the admin account password (B) is a good practice but may not fully mitigate the ongoing threat if the account has already been compromised.

Blocking employees (C) from logging into non-business applications might help in reducing attack surfaces but doesn't directly address the compromised account issue.

Implementing automation to disable accounts associated with high-risk activities ensures an immediate response to the detected threat, preventing further unauthorized access and allowing time for thorough investigation and remediation.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX guide on incident response and account management.

Best practices for handling compromised accounts.

Automation tools and techniques for security operations centers (SOCs).

The ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) framework is the best tool for a security analyst to use for threat modeling when looking for gaps in detection capabilities based on Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) that may target the industry. Here’s why:

Comprehensive Framework: ATT&CK provides a detailed and structured repository of known adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It helps organizations understand how attackers operate and what techniques they might use.

Gap Analysis: By mapping existing security controls against the ATT&CK matrix, analysts can identify which tactics and techniques are not adequately covered by current detection and mitigation measures.

Industry Relevance: The ATT&CK framework is continuously updated with the latest threat intelligence, making it highly relevant for industries facing APT threats. It provides insights into specific APT groups and their preferred methods of attack.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

MITRE ATT&CK Framework Official Documentation

NIST Special Publication 800-150: Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing

The best solution to harden a three-tier environment (web, database, and application servers) is to implement microsegmentation on the server VLANs. Here’s why:

Enhanced Security: Microsegmentation creates granular security zones within the data center, allowing for more precise control over east-west traffic between servers. This helps prevent lateral movement by attackers who may gain access to one part of the network.

Isolation of Tiers: By segmenting the web, database, and application servers, the organization can apply specific security policies and controls to each segment, reducing the risk of cross-tier attacks.

Compliance and Best Practices: Microsegmentation aligns with best practices for network security and helps meet compliance requirements by ensuring that sensitive data and systems are properly isolated and protected.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-125: Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies

CIS Controls: Control 12 - Boundary Defense

To determine how the acquisition of Company B will impact the attack surface, the following steps are crucial:

A. Documenting third-party connections used by Company B: Understanding all external connections is essential for assessing potential entry points for attackers and ensuring that these connections are secure.

E. Performing an architectural review of Company B's network: This review will identify vulnerabilities and assess the security posture of the acquired company's network, providing a comprehensive understanding of the new attack surface.

These actions will provide a clear picture of the security implications of the acquisition and help in developing a plan to mitigate any identified risks.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of understanding third-party connections and conducting architectural reviews during acquisitions.

NIST Special Publication 800-37, "Guide for Applying the Risk Management Framework to Federal Information Systems": Recommends comprehensive reviews and documentation of third-party connections.

"Mergers, Acquisitions, and Other Restructuring Activities" by Donald DePamphilis: Discusses the importance of security assessments during acquisitions.

The log snippet indicates a DNS AXFR (zone transfer) request, which can be exploited by attackers to gather detailed information about an internal network's infrastructure. Disabling DNS zone transfers is the best solution to mitigate this risk. Zone transfers should generally be restricted to authorized secondary DNS servers and not be publicly accessible, as they can reveal sensitive network information that facilitates lateral movement during an attack.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the importance of securing DNS configurations, including restricting zone transfers.

NIST Special Publication 800-81, "Secure Domain Name System (DNS) Deployment Guide": Recommends restricting or disabling DNS zone transfers to prevent information leakage.

The table indicates varying load times for users accessing the website from different geographic locations. Customers from Australia and India are experiencing significantly higher load times compared to those from the United States. This suggests that latency and geographical distance are affecting the website's performance.

A. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): While an IDS is useful for detecting malicious activities, it does not address performance issues related to latency and geographical distribution of content.

B. CDN (Content Delivery Network): A CDN stores copies of the website's content in multiple geographic locations. By serving content from the nearest server to the user, a CDN can significantly reduce load times and improve user experience globally.

C. WAF (Web Application Firewall): A WAF protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic but does not improve performance related to geographical latency.

D. NAC (Network Access Control): NAC solutions control access to network resources but are not designed to address web performance issues.

Implementing a CDN is the best solution to resolve the performance issues observed in the log output.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

"CDN: Content Delivery Networks Explained" by Akamai Technologies

NIST SP 800-44, "Guidelines on Securing Public Web Servers"

To mitigate the identified vulnerabilities, the following solutions are most appropriate:

A. Implementing data loss prevention (DLP): DLP solutions help prevent the unauthorized transfer of data outside the organization. This directly addresses the exfiltration of intellectual property by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data transfers.

E. Enabling modern authentication that supports Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA): This significantly enhances security by requiring additional verification methods beyond just passwords. It addresses the issue of weak user passwords by making it much harder for unauthorized users to gain access, even if they obtain the password.

Other options, while useful in specific contexts, do not address all the vulnerabilities mentioned:

B. Deploying file integrity monitoring helps detect changes to files but does not prevent data exfiltration or address weak passwords.

C. Restricting access to critical file services improves security but is not comprehensive enough to mitigate all identified vulnerabilities.

D. Deploying directory-based group policies can enforce security policies but might not directly prevent data exfiltration or ensure strong authentication.

F. Implementing a version control system helps manage changes to files but is not a security measure for preventing the identified vulnerabilities.

G. Implementing a CMDB platform (Configuration Management Database) helps manage IT assets but does not address the specific security issues mentioned.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"

CIS Controls, "Control 13: Data Protection" and "Control 16: Account Monitoring and Control"

VPN Concentrator:

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AAA Server:

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OWIN23 is running Windows 7, which is a legacy operating system. Many EDR solutions no longer provide full support for outdated operating systems like Windows 7, which has reached its end of life and is no longer receiving security updates from Microsoft. This makes such systems more vulnerable to infections and attacks, including remote access Trojans (RATs).

A. OWIN23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR: This is the most probable cause because the lack of support means that the EDR solution may not fully protect or monitor this system, making it an easy target for infections.

B. LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT: While LN002 is unmanaged, it is less likely to propagate the RAT to OWIN23 directly without an established vector.

C. The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker: This is possible but less likely than the lack of support for an outdated OS.

D. OWIN29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network: While this could happen, the status indicates OWIN29 is in a bypass mode, which might limit its interactions but does not directly explain the infection on OWIN23.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"

Microsoft's Windows 7 End of Support documentation

The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux). Here's why:

Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.

Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.

Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied.

Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of privilege escalation attacks.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NSA's Guide to the Secure Configuration of Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 (SELinux)

NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

In the given scenario, the security engineer is likely examining login activities and their associated geolocations. This type of analysis is aimed at identifying unusual login patterns that might indicate an impossible travel scenario. An impossible travel scenario is when a single user account logs in from geographically distant locations in a short time, which is physically impossible. By assessing login activities using geolocation, the engineer can tune alerts to identify and respond to potential security breaches more effectively.

Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.

Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?

Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable insights.

Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats, helping the organization take proactive measures.

Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues.

Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats.

Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities:

A. Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks comprehensive operationalization.

C. Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not for broader threat intelligence.

D. Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"Threat Intelligence Platforms," Gartner Research

NIST Special Publication 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"

When dealing with false positives and false negatives reported by a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, the goal is to enhance the accuracy of the alerts and ensure that actual threats are identified correctly. The following sources of information best support the analysis process:

A. Third-party reports and logs: Utilizing external sources of information such as threat intelligence reports, vendor logs, and other third-party data can provide a broader perspective on potential threats. These sources often contain valuable insights and context that can help correlate events more accurately, reducing the likelihood of false positives and false negatives.

B. Trends: Analyzing trends over time can help in understanding patterns and anomalies in the data. By observing trends, the security team can distinguish between normal and abnormal behavior, which aids in fine-tuning the SIEM configurations to better detect true positives and reduce false alerts.

Other options such as dashboards, alert failures, network traffic summaries, and manual review processes are also useful but are more operational rather than foundational for understanding the root causes of reporting errors in SIEM configurations.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of leveraging external threat intelligence and historical trends for accurate threat detection.

NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Highlights best practices for log management, including the use of third-party sources and trend analysis to improve incident detection.

"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Discusses the use of external intelligence and trends to enhance SIEM accuracy.

When creating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure, prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical. Here’s why:

Exposure to Attack: External-facing infrastructure is directly exposed to the internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.

Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation significantly.

Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful threats, thereby improving overall security posture.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments

OWASP Threat Modeling Cheat Sheet

A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis: An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.

Other options:

B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync: While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously.

C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.

D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-209, "Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure"

"Immutable Backup Architecture" by Veeam

The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:

Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.

TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include

com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.

DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

RFC 7489: Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)

NIST Special Publication 800-45: Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security

The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here’s a detailed explanation:

Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.

Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.

Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Study Guide by Quentin Docter, Jon Buhagiar

NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

The code function provided in the question seems to be designed to parse JSON formatted logs to check for an alarm state. Option A is a JSON format that matches the structure likely expected by the code. The presence of the "error_log" and "InAlarmState" keys suggests that this is the correct input format.

The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure bundled libraries. When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security, they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.

Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?

Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.

Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure, leading to potential security risks.

Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.

Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:

A. Misconfigured code commit: Could lead to issues but less likely to trigger anti-malware alerts.

C. Invalid code signing certificate: Would lead to trust issues but not typically anti-malware alerts.

D. Data leakage: Relevant for privacy concerns but not directly related to anti-malware alerts.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"Securing Open Source Libraries," OWASP

"Managing Third-Party Software Security Risks," Gartner Research

Risk appetite is the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. When operating with a constrained budget, understanding the organization's risk appetite is crucial because:

It helps prioritize security investments based on the level of risk the organization is willing to tolerate.

High-impact, low-likelihood events may be deemed acceptable if they fall within the organization's risk appetite, allowing for budget allocation to other critical areas.

Properly understanding and defining risk appetite ensures that limited resources are used effectively to manage risks that align with the organization's strategic goals.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) guidelines

ISO 31000, "Risk Management – Guidelines"

The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.

Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:

Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.

Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.

Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.

Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:

A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.

B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.

C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.

E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation

"BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation

Context-based authentication enhances traditional security methods by incorporating additional layers of information about the user's current environment and behavior. This can include factors such as the user's location, the time of access, the device used, and the behavior patterns. It is particularly useful in preventing unauthorized access even if an attacker has obtained a valid password.

Rule-based (A) focuses on predefined rules and is less flexible in adapting to dynamic threats.

Time-based (B) authentication considers the time factor but doesn't provide comprehensive protection against stolen credentials.

Role-based (C) is more about access control based on the user's role within the organization rather than authenticating the user based on current context.

By implementing context-based authentication, the company can ensure that even if a password is compromised, the additional contextual factors required for access (which an attacker is unlikely to possess) provide a robust defense mechanism.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX guide on authentication models and best practices.

NIST guidelines on authentication and identity proofing.

Analysis of multi-factor and adaptive authentication techniques.

Malware that does not execute in a sandbox environment often contains anti-analysis techniques, such as anti-virtualization code. This code detects when the malware is running in a virtualized environment and alters its behavior to avoid detection. Checking for anti-virtualization code is a logical next step because:

It helps determine if the malware is designed to evade analysis tools.

Identifying such code can provide insights into the malware's behavior and intent.

This step can also inform further analysis methods, such as running the malware on physical hardware.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

SANS Institute, "Malware Analysis Techniques"

"Practical Malware Analysis" by Michael Sikorski and Andrew Honig

In reviewing email headers and determining actions to mitigate phishing attempts, the security analyst should focus on patterns of suspicious behavior and the reputation of the sending domains. Here’s the analysis of the options provided:

A. Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain: Blocking a domain solely because it is not recognized can lead to legitimate emails being missed. Recognition alone should not be the criterion for blocking.

B. Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator: While rerouting suspicious messages can be a good practice, it is not specific to the domain sending repeated suspicious messages.

C. Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header: Quarantining messages based on the presence of a specific domain in the email header can be too broad and may capture legitimate emails.

D. Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages: This option is the most appropriate because it targets a domain that has shown a pattern of sending suspicious messages. Blocking a domain that repeatedly sends phishing attempts without previous communications helps in preventing future attempts from the same source and aligns with the goal of mitigating phishing risks.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Details best practices for handling phishing attempts, including blocking domains with repeated suspicious activity.

NIST Special Publication 800-45 Version 2, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security": Provides guidelines on email security, including the management of suspicious email domains.

"Phishing and Countermeasures: Understanding the Increasing Problem of Electronic Identity Theft" by Markus Jakobsson and Steven Myers: Discusses effective measures to counter phishing attempts, including blocking persistent offenders.

By blocking the domain that has consistently attempted to send suspicious messages, the security analyst can effectively reduce the risk of phishing attacks.

To secure the Operational Technology (OT) environment based on the given requirements, the best approach is to implement a bastion host in the OT network. The bastion host serves as a secure entry point for remote access, allowing third-party vendors to connect while being monitored by security tools. Using a dedicated update server for workstations ensures that security updates are applied in a controlled manner without direct internet access.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends the use of bastion hosts and dedicated update servers for securing OT environments.

NIST Special Publication 800-82, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security": Advises on isolating OT networks and using secure remote access methods.

"Industrial Network Security" by Eric D. Knapp and Joel Thomas Langill: Discusses strategies for securing OT networks, including the use of bastion hosts and update servers.

Based on the provided logs, the user has accessed various applications from different geographic locations within a very short timeframe. This pattern is indicative of the "impossible travel" security rule, a common feature in Single Sign-On (SSO) systems designed to detect and prevent fraudulent access attempts.

Analysis of Logs:

At 8:47 p.m., the user accessed a VPN from Toronto.

At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed email from Los Angeles.

At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed the human resources system from Los Angeles.

At 8:49 p.m., the user accessed email again from Los Angeles.

At 8:52 p.m., the user attempted to access the human resources system from Toronto, which was denied.

These rapid changes in location are physically impossible and typically trigger security measures to prevent unauthorized access. The SSO system detected these inconsistencies and likely flagged the activity as suspicious, resulting in access denial.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"

"Impossible Travel Detection," Microsoft Documentation

The best strategy for securely managing cryptographic material is to use a Hardware Security Module (HSM). Here’s why:

Security and Integrity: HSMs are specialized hardware devices designed to protect and manage digital keys. They provide high levels of physical and logical security, ensuring that cryptographic material is well protected against tampering and unauthorized access.

Centralized Key Management: Using HSMs allows for centralized management of cryptographic keys, reducing the risks associated with decentralized and potentially insecure key storage practices, such as on personal laptops.

Compliance and Best Practices: HSMs comply with various industry standards and regulations (such as FIPS 140-2) for secure key management. This ensures that the organization adheres to best practices and meets compliance requirements.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-57: Recommendation for Key Management

ISO/IEC 19790:2012: Information Technology - Security Techniques - Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules

Excessive MFA push notifications can be a sign of an attempted push notification attack, where attackers repeatedly send MFA prompts hoping the user will eventually approve one by mistake. To mitigate this:

A. Provisioning FIDO2 devices: While FIDO2 devices offer strong authentication, they may not be practical for all users and do not directly address the issue of excessive push notifications.

B. Deploying a text message-based MFA: SMS-based MFA can still be vulnerable to similar spamming attacks and phishing.

C. Enabling OTP via email: Email-based OTPs add another layer of security but do not directly solve the issue of excessive notifications.

D. Configuring prompt-driven MFA: This option allows users to respond to prompts in a secure manner, often including features like time-limited approval windows, additional verification steps, or requiring specific actions to approve. This can help prevent users from accidentally approving malicious attempts.

Configuring prompt-driven MFA is the best solution to restrict unnecessary MFA notifications and improve security.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"

"Multi-Factor Authentication: Best Practices" by Microsoft

The sshd_config file is the main configuration file for the OpenSSH server. To disable weak CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) ciphers for SSH connections, the security engineer should modify the sshd_config file to update the list of allowed ciphers. This file typically contains settings for the SSH daemon, including which encryption algorithms are allowed.

By editing the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file and updating the Ciphers directive, weak ciphers can be removed, and only strong ciphers can be allowed. This change ensures that the SSH server does not use insecure encryption methods.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

OpenSSH manual pages (man sshd_config)

CIS Benchmarks for Linux

Matching Relevant Findings to the Affected Hosts:

Finding 1:

Affected Host: DNS

Reason: Users are unable to log into the domain from their workstations after relocating to Site B, which implies a failure in domain name services that are critical for user authentication and domain login.

Finding 2:

Affected Host: Pumps

Reason: The pump room at Site B becoming inoperable directly points to the critical infrastructure components associated with pumping operations.

Finding 3:

Affected Host: VPN Concentrator

Reason: Unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping indicates issues with network routing, which is often managed by VPN concentrators that handle site-to-site connectivity.

Corrective Actions for Finding 3:

Finding 3 Corrective Action:

Action: Modify the BGP configuration

Reason: Route flapping is often related to issues with Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) configurations. Adjusting BGP settings can stabilize routes and improve internet connectivity reliability.

Replication to Site B for Finding 1:

Affected Host: DNS

Explanation: Domain Name System (DNS) services are essential for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to log into the network. Replicating DNS services ensures that even if Site A is disrupted, users at Site B can still authenticate and access necessary resources.

Replication to Site B for Finding 2:

Affected Host: Pumps

Explanation: The operation of the pump room is crucial for maintaining various functions within the infrastructure. Replicating the control systems and configurations for the pumps at Site B ensures that operations can continue smoothly even if Site A is affected.

Configuration Changes for Finding 3:

Affected Host: VPN Concentrator

Explanation: Route flapping is a situation where routes become unstable, causing frequent changes in the best path for data to travel. This instability can be mitigated by modifying BGP configurations to ensure more stable routing. VPN concentrators, which manage connections between sites, are typically configured with BGP for optimal routing.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: This guide provides detailed information on disaster recovery and continuity of operations, emphasizing the importance of replicating critical services and making necessary configuration changes to ensure seamless operation during disruptions.

CompTIA Security+ Exam Objectives: These objectives highlight key areas in disaster recovery planning, including the replication of critical services and network configuration adjustments.

Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Planning (DRBCP): This resource outlines best practices for ensuring that operations can continue at an alternate site during a disaster, including the replication of essential services and network stability measures.

By ensuring that critical services like DNS and control systems for pumps are replicated at the alternate site, and by addressing network routing issues through proper BGP configuration, the organization can maintain operational continuity and minimize the impact of natural disasters on their operations.

The most appropriate technique to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module is key stretching. Here's why:

Enhanced Security: Key stretching algorithms, such as PBKDF2, bcrypt, and scrypt, increase the computational effort required to derive the encryption key from the password, making brute-force attacks more difficult and time-consuming.

Compatibility: Key stretching can be implemented alongside existing cryptographic modules, enhancing their security without the need for a complete overhaul.

Industry Best Practices: Key stretching is a widely recommended practice for securely storing passwords, as it significantly improves resistance to password-cracking attacks.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines - Authentication and Lifecycle Management

OWASP Password Storage Cheat Sheet