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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v5.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

Options:

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

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Questions 5

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

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Questions 6

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

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Questions 7

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

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Questions 8

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Questions 9

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

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Questions 10

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

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Questions 11

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Questions 12

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

Options:

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

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Questions 13

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Questions 14

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

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Questions 15

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

Options:

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

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Questions 16

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

Options:

A.

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.

IAM failures

C.

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

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Questions 17

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

Options:

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

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Questions 18

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

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Questions 19

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

Options:

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

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Questions 20

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

Options:

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

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Questions 21

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

Options:

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

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Questions 22

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

Options:

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

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Questions 23

What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

Options:

A.

Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion

B.

Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services

C.

Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans

D.

Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

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Questions 24

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Questions 25

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Questions 26

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

Options:

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Questions 27

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Questions 28

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

Options:

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

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Questions 29

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 30

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

Options:

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

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Questions 31

Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues?

Options:

A.

Elastic infrastructure

B.

Default deny

C.

Decreased use of micro-services

D.

Segregation by default

E.

Fewer serverless configurations

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Questions 32

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

Options:

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

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Questions 33

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

Options:

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

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Questions 34

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

Options:

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

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Questions 35

CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

B.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

C.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

D.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Questions 36

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

Options:

A.

Single key for all data owners

B.

One key per data owner

C.

Multiple keys per data owner

D.

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

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Questions 37

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

Options:

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

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Questions 38

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

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Questions 39

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

Options:

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

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Questions 40

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

Options:

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

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Questions 41

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

Options:

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

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Questions 42

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 43

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 44

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.

Options:

A.

Rapid elasticity

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Broad network access

D.

Measured service

E.

On-demand self-service

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Questions 45

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 46

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

Options:

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

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Questions 47

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

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Questions 48

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 49

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

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Questions 50

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 51

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Questions 52

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

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Questions 53

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

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Exam Code: CCSK
Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v5.0)
Last Update: Nov 21, 2024
Questions: 177
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