CDIP Certified Documentation Integrity Practitioner Questions and Answers

A hospital-acquired condition (HAC) is an undesirable situation or condition that affects a patient and that arose during a stay in a hospital or medical facility. CMS has identified 14 categories of HACs for which it will not pay the higher DRG rate if the condition was not present on admission (POA). One of these categories is stage III and IV pressure ulcers. A pressure ulcer is damage to the skin and underlying tissue caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss with damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. The ulcer presents as a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissue.

A. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy is not a HAC, because it is not included in the CMS HAC list. Iatrogenic pneumothorax is a HAC only when it occurs with venous catheterization.

B. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization is a HAC, but it may be present on admission if the venous catheterization was performed before the admission to the hospital.

C. Pressure ulcer stage II is not a HAC, because only stage III and IV pressure ulcers are included in the CMS HAC list. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis, dermis, or both. The ulcer is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater.

References:

• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530
• Hospital Acquired Conditions | CMS
• ICD-10 HAC List | CMS
• Bedsores (pressure ulcers) - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic

The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) provides external benchmarks to examine the effectiveness of a facility’s clinical documentation program by developing and disseminating quality indicators (QIs) that measure various aspects of health care quality, such as patient safety, outcomes, efficiency, and effectiveness. These QIs are based on administrative data and can be used to compare the performance of different health care providers or facilities across the nation. The QIs include inpatient quality indicators (IQIs), patient safety indicators (PSIs), prevention quality indicators (PQIs), and pediatric quality indicators (PQIs). These QIs can help clinical documentation improvement (CDI) programs identify areas of improvement, monitor trends, and evaluate the impact of CDI interventions on health care quality 2.

References: 1: Clinical Documentation Improvement Programs: Quality, Efficiency | Deloitte US Analysis 2 2: AHRQ Quality Indicators 3

The entity that has the following regulation is the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), which is the federal agency that oversees the Medicare and Medicaid programs and sets the Conditions of Participation (CoPs) and Conditions for Coverage (CfCs) for health care organizations that participate in these programs. The regulation that requires a medical history and physical examination be completed and documented for each patient no more than 30 days before or 24 hours after admission or registration, but prior to surgery or a procedure requiring anesthesia services, is part of the CoPs for Hospitals, which are located in 42 CFR § 482.24. This regulation was revised in 2007 to align with the Joint Commission’s standard and to provide more flexibility and consistency for hospitals and practitioners. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide)

References:

• CDIP Exam Content Outline1
• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
• 42 CFR § 482.243

AHIMA suggests that an organization should consider a physician response rate of 80% and an agreement rate of 80% as benchmarks for CDI program performance. These rates indicate the level of physician engagement and documentation accuracy in relation to CDI queries.

References: AHIMA. “Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update).” Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.

According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, whether or not queries should be kept as a permanent part of the medical record is decided by the organizational policy of each facility1. There is no federal or state law that mandates the retention of queries in the medical record, although some external reviewers may request copies of queries to validate the query wording and compliance2. Physician preference is not a valid factor in determining the query retention policy, as queries should be handled consistently across the organization3. Therefore, the correct answer is D. organizational policy. References:

• Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA
• Q&A: Develop policies regarding query retention | ACDIS
• Q&A: Keep query retention policies consistent | ACDIS

A strategy that should be part of a project aimed at improving the unacceptable documentation behaviors of some physicians is to add a physician advisor/champion to the CDI team. A physician advisor/champion is a physician leader who supports and advocates for the CDI program, educates and mentors other physicians on documentation best practices, resolves conflicts and barriers, and provides feedback and recognition to physicians who improve their documentation. A physician advisor/champion can help change the documentation behaviors of some physicians by using peer influence, credibility, and authority to motivate them to comply with the CDI program goals and standards. A physician advisor/champion can also help bridge the gap between the CDI team and the physicians, and foster a culture of collaboration and quality improvement 23.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 136 4 2: The Role of Physician Advisors in Clinical Documentation Improvement Programs 5 3: Physician Advisor: The Key to Clinical Documentation Improvement Success

A rebilling is permissible when queries are answered after the initial bill, as long as the hospital follows the appropriate guidelines and procedures for rebilling, such as submitting a corrected claim within the timely filing limit, notifying the payer of the reason for rebilling, and documenting the query process and outcome in the health record. Rebilling may be necessary to ensure accurate coding and reporting of the patient’s condition and treatment, as well as appropriate reimbursement and quality measures. [3][3] References: 1: https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf [ 3][3]: https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

A CC/MCC capture rate is a metric that measures the percentage of cases that have at least one complication or comorbidity (CC) or major complication or comorbidity (MCC) coded in the medical record. This metric is important for a CDI program because CCs and MCCs affect the severity of illness, risk of mortality, and reimbursement of the cases under the Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) system. A higher CC/MCC capture rate indicates a more accurate and complete documentation of the patient’s condition and the resources used to treat them. A CDI program can use this metric to monitor the effectiveness of its queries, education, and feedback to the providers and coders. A CDI program can also compare its CC/MCC capture rate with national or regional benchmarks to identify areas of improvement or best practices 2.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: The Natural History of CDI Programs: A Metric-Based Model 4

The provider agreement rate is the percentage of queries that result in a change in the documentation or coding that is consistent with the query. It is a measure of the accuracy and appropriateness of the queries, as well as the provider’s acceptance of the CDI program’s recommendations. A high provider agreement rate indicates that the CDI practitioners are asking relevant and compliant queries that improve the quality and specificity of the documentation. The other options are not directly related to the credibility of the queries or the success of the CDI program. The CDI agreement rate is the percentage of queries that agree with the coder’s final DRG assignment. The CDI query rate is the percentage of records that generate a query from the CDI practitioner. The provider response rate is the percentage of queries that receive a response from the provider.

According to the ICD-10-CM/PCS MS-DRG Definitions Manual, DRG 190 is assigned for patients with a principal diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a major complication or comorbidity (MCC)1. Pneumonia is considered an MCC for this DRG2. Therefore, the patient in this case meets the criteria for DRG 190. The other options are incorrect because they do not match the principal diagnosis or the MCC of the patient. References:

• ICD-10-CM/PCS MS-DRG Definitions Manual
• ICD-10-CM/PCS MS-DRG v38.0 Definitions Manual - MDC 4: Diseases and Disorders of the Respiratory System

The most appropriate action in this case is to query the provider to document the etiology of pneumonia, which is pseudomonas bacteria. This is because the etiology of pneumonia affects the coding and classification of the condition, as well as the severity of illness, risk of mortality, and reimbursement. According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, pneumonia should be coded by type whenever possible, and if the type of pneumonia is not documented, then the default code is J18.9, Pneumonia, unspecified organism 2. However, if the type of pneumonia is documented, then a more specific code can be assigned, such as J15.1, Pneumonia due to Pseudomonas 3. Therefore, querying the provider to document the etiology of pneumonia will improve the accuracy and completeness of the documentation and coding, and reflect the true clinical picture of the patient.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 139 4 2: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2021, Section I.C.9.a 3: ICD-10-CM Code J15.1 - Pneumonia due to Pseudomonas

According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, when the affected side is not documented for a condition that is commonly associated with hemiplegia or hemiparesis, such as a cerebral vascular accident, the default code is the non-dominant side. The non-dominant side is usually the left side for right-handed individuals and the right side for left-handed individuals. However, if the patient is ambidextrous, the default code is still the non-dominant side, unless the provider indicates otherwise. Therefore, in this case, the default code for cerebral vascular accident with left sided weakness is I63.532 Cerebral infarction due to unspecified occlusion or stenosis of left middle cerebral artery1.

References:

• CDIP® Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf)
• ICD-10 Code for Cerebral infarction due to unspecified occlusion or stenosis of left middle cerebral artery- I63.532- AAPC Coder1
• ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2022

Combination codes are used to classify two diagnoses, a diagnosis with a manifestation, or a diagnosis with an associated complication. A complication is a condition that arises during the hospital stay that prolongs the length of stay by at least one day in approximately 75 percent of cases1. Complications may affect payment and severity of illness and risk of mortality classifications. Examples of combination codes that include a diagnosis with an associated complication are:

• I50.23 Acute on chronic systolic (congestive) heart failure
• K57.21 Diverticulitis of large intestine with perforation and abscess with bleeding
• O34.211 Maternal care for incompetent cervix with cerclage, first trimester

A diagnosis that is an integral part of a disease process is not a valid option for combination codes, because it does not represent a separate or additional condition that needs to be coded. For example, chest pain is an integral part of acute myocardial infarction and does not require a separate code.

A diagnosis with an associated procedure is not a valid option for combination codes, because procedures are coded separately from diagnoses using ICD-10-PCS codes. For example, appendicitis with appendectomy is not a combination code, but rather two codes: one for the diagnosis (K35.80 Acute appendicitis without perforation or gangrene) and one for the procedure (0DTJ4ZZ Resection of appendix, percutaneous endoscopic approach).

A diagnosis with a sequelae or late effect is not a valid option for combination codes, because sequelae or late effects are coded separately from the original condition using the appropriate code from category B90-B94 Sequelae of infectious and parasitic diseases or category I69 Sequelae of cerebrovascular disease, followed by the code for the specific condition2. For example, hemiplegia following cerebral infarction is not a combination code, but rather two codes: one for the sequelae (I69.351 Hemiplegia and hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting right dominant side) and one for the original condition (I63.9 Cerebral infarction, unspecified).

References:

• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530
• ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2022
• Identifying ICD-10 Combination Codes - Outsource Strategies International

Patient identification and demographic accuracy is the process of ensuring that the patient’s identity and personal information are correctly recorded and verified in the health record and other systems. A potential breach of this process could result in automated registration entries that generate erroneous patient identification, which could lead to patient safety and quality of care issues, enabling fraudulent activity involving patient identity theft, or providing unjustified care for profit2

Authorship integrity is the process of ensuring that the source and content of the health record are authentic, accurate, complete, and consistent. Documentation integrity is the process of ensuring that the health record reflects the patient’s clinical status, treatment, and outcomes. Auditing integrity is the process of ensuring that the health record is reviewed and monitored for compliance, quality, and improvement purposes2

1: https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf  2: https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

The best place for the provider to document a query response is the next progress note and the problem list because this ensures that the query response is timely, consistent, and integrated into the health record. According to the AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief1, the provider should document the query response in the health record as soon as possible after receiving the query, preferably in the next progress note. The provider should also update the problem list to reflect any new or revised diagnoses resulting from the query response. This helps to maintain an accurate and comprehensive list of the patient’s current and chronic conditions, which can facilitate continuity of care, quality reporting, and reimbursement. Documenting the query response in an addendum to the history and physical or only on the query form is not sufficient, as it may not capture the current status of the patient or be easily accessible to other providers or coders.

References:

• CDIP® Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf)
• Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice—2022 Update1

Outcome measures are indicators of the quality of care provided by a healthcare organization, such as mortality rates, readmission rates, hospital-acquired conditions, patient safety indicators, and patient satisfaction scores. These measures are used by CMS to evaluate and compare the performance of hospitals and other providers under various pay-for-performance programs, such as value-based purchasing, hospital readmissions reduction program, hospital-acquired condition reduction program, and hospital inpatient quality reporting program. A CDI program can influence these outcome measures by ensuring that the clinical documentation accurately reflects the severity of illness, risk of mortality, and complexity of care of the patients. This can help to improve the risk adjustment and case mix index of the organization, as well as to identify and prevent potential quality issues.

References:

• CDIP® Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf)
• CDIP® Exam Preparation Guide (https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077)

A CDI program’s vision should reflect its purpose, values, and goals, and align with the organization’s overall vision and mission. Value and mission statements help define the CDI program’s role, scope, and objectives, and communicate them to stakeholders. Reporting and the use of technology are important tools for a CDI program, but they are not part of its vision. Benchmarks and case mix index are performance indicators that measure the CDI program’s outcomes, but they do not reflect its vision. Diagnostic related groups and revenue cycle are aspects of reimbursement that may be affected by the CDI program, but they are not the primary focus of its vision.

The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) should interact with the physician to clarify whether or not the pneumonia is a hospital-acquired condition (HAC) by asking the physician to indicate if the pneumonia was present on admission (POA) based on the initial chest x-ray. This is because the POA status of a condition affects its coding, reporting, and reimbursement, and it is the responsibility of the physician to document the POA status of all diagnoses. The CDIP should not assume that the pneumonia developed after admission based on the timing of symptoms or treatment, as this may not reflect the true clinical picture. The CDIP should also not ask the physician about the causal relationship between the acute kidney injury and the pneumonia, as this is not relevant to the POA status. The CDIP should also not avoid querying the physician based on the presence of another MCC, as this may compromise the accuracy and completeness of documentation. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide)

References:

• CDIP Exam Content Outline
• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide
• Present on Admission Reporting Guidelines

The proper sequencing of the principal and secondary diagnoses in this case is as follows:

• Principal diagnosis: Acute appendicitis. This is the condition, after study, that occasioned the admission to the hospital, according to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting. The patient was admitted for laparoscopic surgery, which is a definitive treatment for acute appendicitis. The physician documented “possible acute appendicitis or probable Meckel diverticulitis” as the cause of the right lower quadrant abdominal pain. According to the AHA’s Coding Clinic, Fourth Quarter 2016, pp. 147-148, when a physician documents two diagnoses connected by “or”, coders should query the physician for clarification if possible. However, if a query is not possible or not answered, coders should assign codes for both conditions, unless one of them has been ruled out or confirmed by further testing or treatment. In this case, there is no indication that either acute appendicitis or Meckel diverticulitis has been ruled out or confirmed by further testing or treatment. Therefore, both conditions should be coded and reported. However, only one of them can be the principal diagnosis. Since acute appendicitis is more commonly associated with laparoscopic surgery than Meckel diverticulitis, and since it has a higher relative weight than Meckel diverticulitis under the MS-DRG system, it is reasonable to select acute appendicitis as the principal diagnosis 23.
• Secondary diagnosis: Right lower quadrant abdominal pain. This is a sign or symptom that is associated with the principal diagnosis and requires clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, diagnostic procedures, extended length of hospital stay, or increased nursing care and/or monitoring. The patient presented with right lower quadrant abdominal pain as a manifestation of acute appendicitis or Meckel diverticulitis. The pain required clinical evaluation by abdominal ultrasound and therapeutic treatment by laparoscopic surgery. Therefore, it should be coded and reported as a secondary diagnosis 4.
• Secondary diagnosis: Type I diabetes mellitus. This is a chronic condition that affects the patient’s care in terms of requiring diagnostic or therapeutic services or affecting patient outcomes or resource utilization. The patient has a history of type I diabetes mellitus and received an injection of neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin to normalize the blood sugar level prior to surgery. Therefore, it should be coded and reported as a secondary diagnosis 4.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 2: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2021, Section II.A 3: AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS, Fourth Quarter 2016 4: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2021, Section III.C : AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

The correct diagnostic related group (DRG) assignment for this case is 469 Major Joint Replacement or Reattachment of Lower Extremity with MCC. This is because the principal diagnosis is primary osteoarthritis of right hip status post uncomplicated total hip replacement, which belongs to the Major Diagnostic Category (MDC) 08 Diseases and Disorders of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue. The DRG 469 is assigned to cases with this MDC and a surgical procedure code for major joint replacement or reattachment of lower extremity. The secondary diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia due to choking on liquid episode qualifies as a major complication or comorbidity (MCC), which increases the relative weight and payment for the DRG. The MCC is determined by applying the Medicare Code Editor (MCE) software, which checks the validity and compatibility of the diagnosis codes and assigns them to different severity levels based on the CMS Severity-Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) definitions manual 2.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: CMS MS-DRG Definitions Manual, Version 38.0, p. 8-9 4

The name of the medication (aspirin), the date, time and location where it was last administered should be documented in the health record for inpatients with a discharge principal diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction, unless a contraindication to aspirin is documented. This is because aspirin is a core measure for acute myocardial infarction patients, and its administration within 24 hours of arrival is an indicator of quality of care and patient safety. The date, time and location are important to verify that the medication was given within the specified timeframe and to avoid duplication or omission of doses4 References: 1: https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf  4: https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

This response provides the highest level of specificity for the patient’s diagnosis because it includes the following elements:

• The type of heart failure: diastolic, which means the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling with blood during diastole, resulting in increased filling pressures and pulmonary congestion. Diastolic heart failure is also known as heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), which is defined as an ejection fraction of 50% or higher 2.
• The acuity of heart failure: acute on chronic, which means the patient has a history of chronic heart failure that has worsened acutely due to a precipitating factor, such as infection, ischemia, arrhythmia, or medication noncompliance. Acute on chronic heart failure is associated with higher mortality and morbidity than stable chronic heart failure 3.
• The associated conditions: hypertensive renal disease and CKD 3, which indicate that the patient has kidney damage and reduced kidney function due to high blood pressure. CKD 3 is the third stage of chronic kidney disease, which is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate of 30 to 59 mL per minute per 1.73 m2 4.

The other responses are less specific because they either omit or misrepresent some of these elements. For example, response B incorrectly states that the patient has systolic heart failure, which is contradicted by the echocardiogram result. Response C does not specify whether the heart failure is chronic or acute on chronic, which has implications for treatment and prognosis. Response D does not specify the type of heart failure, which affects the coding and classification of the condition.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 5 2: Heart Failure With Preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF) | American Heart Association 3: Acute-on-Chronic Heart Failure: A High-Risk Phenotype Needing Separate Attention 4: Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) | National Kidney Foundation

According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2023, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is also known as diastolic heart failure or heart failure with normal ejection fraction1. The code category for diastolic heart failure is I50.3-, which includes unspecified diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.30), acute diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.31), chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.32), and acute on chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.33)1. If the documentation does not specify the acuity of the diastolic heart failure, the default code is I50.301. Therefore, the correct coding for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is I50.30.

References:

• ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 20231

Levophed is a brand name of norepinephrine, a medication that is similar to adrenaline and acts as a vasopressor, meaning that it constricts blood vessels and increases blood pressure. Levophed is indicated to raise blood pressure in adult patients with severe, acute hypotension (low blood pressure) that can occur with certain medical conditions or surgical procedures1. One of these conditions is septic shock, which is a life-threatening complication of sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response to infection. Septic shock is characterized by persistent hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, along with signs of organ dysfunction and tissue hypoperfusion. Levophed is used as a first-line vasopressor agent in septic shock to restore adequate perfusion pressure and tissue oxygenation.

Acute respiratory failure, multiple sclerosis, and acute kidney failure are not indications for Levophed treatment. Acute respiratory failure is a condition in which the lungs cannot provide enough oxygen to the blood or remove enough carbon dioxide from the blood. It can be caused by various lung diseases, injuries, or infections. The treatment of acute respiratory failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, causing inflammation, demyelination, and axonal damage. The symptoms of multiple sclerosis vary depending on the location and extent of the nerve damage, but they may include vision problems, numbness, weakness, fatigue, cognitive impairment, or pain. The treatment of multiple sclerosis aims to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses, slow the progression of disability, and manage the symptoms. It may include immunomodulatory drugs, corticosteroids, symptomatic medications, physical therapy, or other interventions. Acute kidney failure is a condition in which the kidneys suddenly lose their ability to filter waste products and fluids from the blood. It can be caused by various factors that impair the blood flow to the kidneys, damage the kidney tissue, or block the urine output. The symptoms of acute kidney failure may include decreased urine output, fluid retention, nausea, confusion, or shortness of breath. The treatment of acute kidney failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include fluid management, electrolyte replacement, dialysis, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures.

References:

• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530
• Levophed Uses, Side Effects & Warnings - Drugs.com
• Levophed (Norepinephrine Bitartrate): Uses, Dosage … - RxList
• Levarterenol, Levophed (norepinephrine) dosing … - Medscape
• [Septic Shock: Practice Essentials … - Medscape Reference]
• [Surviving Sepsis Campaign: International Guidelines for … - PubMed]
• [Acute respiratory failure: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia]
• [Multiple sclerosis - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]
• [Acute kidney failure - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]

The first step the CDI director should take is to gather data on the incidence of inaccurate record documentation because it is important to establish the baseline and scope of the problem, as well as to identify the potential causes and consequences of over-using electronic copy and paste. Data collection can help to measure the frequency, severity, and impact of documentation errors, such as inconsistencies, redundancies, contradictions, or omissions. Data collection can also help to determine the best methods and tools for conducting the documentation integrity project, such as audits, surveys, interviews, or software applications. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1)

References:

• CDIP Exam Content Outline2
• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1

Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a neurological event with the signs and symptoms of a stroke, but which go away within a short period of time. TIA is assigned to DRG 069, which is a medical DRG. Cerebrovascular disease was ruled out, so it cannot be coded as a secondary diagnosis. The other options are incorrect because they do not reflect the principal diagnosis of TIA.

An open-ended query is a type of query that allows the provider to respond with free text, rather than choosing from a list of options or answering yes or no. An open-ended query is appropriate when the CDIP is looking for clarity on whether a diagnosis has been “ruled in” or “ruled out”, because it allows the provider to document the final diagnosis or impression based on the clinical evidence and reasoning. An open-ended query also avoids leading or suggesting a specific diagnosis to the provider, which could compromise the integrity and validity of the documentation. (Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1)

References:

• Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1

Inconsistent clinically relevant queries may make physicians lose respect for CDI efforts and disengage because they may perceive them as irrelevant, redundant, or contradictory. Clinically relevant queries are those that affect the quality of care, patient safety, severity of illness, risk of mortality, or reimbursement. Inconsistent queries may result from lack of standardization, conflicting guidelines, poor communication, or lack of clinical validation. To avoid inconsistency, CDI practitioners should follow best practices such as using evidence-based criteria, adhering to query policies and procedures, collaborating with coding and quality staff, and seeking feedback from physicians and physician advisors 2.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 136 3 2: Proactive CDI: Tackling the Problem of Physician Engagement 4

According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, one of the best practices for a compliant query process is to require physicians to document their responses to queries in the health record1. This ensures that the documentation is consistent, accurate, and complete, and that the query and response are part of the permanent record. Verbal responses are not acceptable, as they do not provide a clear audit trail and may lead to errors or discrepancies in coding and billing1. Therefore, the CDI manager should educate the physicians on the importance of documenting their responses in the charts and monitor their compliance. The other options are not recommended, as they may compromise the integrity of the documentation or violate the query guidelines1. References:

• Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA

A query should be generated when documentation contains a diagnosis without clinical validation, meaning that there is no evidence in the health record to support the diagnosis or that the diagnosis is inconsistent with other clinical indicators. A diagnosis without clinical validation may affect the accuracy and completeness of coding, quality measures, reimbursement, and patient care.

References: AHIMA/ACDIS. “Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update).” Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.

Creating policies and procedures for the query process will help eliminate confusion among CDI staff, providers, coders, and other stakeholders regarding the purpose, scope, format, and expectations of the query process. Policies and procedures should be based on industry standards and best practices, and should be reviewed and updated regularly.

References: AHIMA/ACDIS. “Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update).” Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.

The coding reference that should be used to access the general rules for the ICD-10-CM Includes Notes and Excludes Notes 1 and 2 is the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting. This document provides the conventions and instructions for the proper use of the ICD-10-CM classification system, including the definitions and examples of the Includes Notes and Excludes Notes 1 and 2. The document is updated annually by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) and the National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS), and is available online at 2. The other coding references listed are not specific to ICD-10-CM or do not contain the general rules for the Includes Notes and Excludes Notes 1 and 2.

References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2021 4

A query is noncompliant if it includes options that are not supported by the clinical indicators or the patient’s condition. In this case, hypernatremia is a condition of high sodium level, not low sodium level, and it is not consistent with the treatment of 0.9% saline IV. Therefore, it is a clinically irrelevant option that may confuse or mislead the provider. A compliant query should only include options that are reasonable and plausible based on the available documentation and evidence. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide)

References:

• CDIP Exam Content Outline1
• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
• AHIMA Practice Brief: Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice3

The physician needs to document the associated diagnosis and the clinical rationale in the progress notes for the CDIP to record the query as answered and agreed because this is the best way to ensure that the health record reflects the patient’s condition and treatment accurately and completely. The associated diagnosis is the condition that caused or contributed to the blood loss and the need for transfusion, such as acute blood loss anemia, hemorrhage, or trauma. The clinical rationale is the explanation of how the diagnosis is supported by the clinical indicators, such as laboratory values, vital signs, symptoms, or procedures. Documenting the associated diagnosis and the clinical rationale in the progress notes also helps to avoid any confusion or inconsistency with other parts of the health record, such as the discharge summary or the coding. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide)

References:

• CDIP Exam Content Outline1
• CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
• Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)3

According to the CDIP® Exam Content Outline, one of the tasks of a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) is to apply coding conventions, guidelines, and definitions for ICD-10-CM/PCS. Coding conventions are the general rules for the use of the classification system, such as the use of abbreviations, punctuation, symbols, and sequencing instructions. Coding guidelines are the official rules for selecting and reporting codes based on the documentation in the health record. Coding definitions are the explanations of the terms and concepts used in the classification system. The conventions and instructions of the classification for ICD-10-CM/PCS take precedence over any other coding reference because they are the primary source of coding rules and standards. The other coding references, such as AMA CPT Assistant, AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, and ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, are secondary sources that provide additional guidance, clarification, or interpretation of the coding conventions and instructions.

References:

• CDIP® Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf)
• ICD-10-CM Features | Diagnosis Coding: Using the ICD-10-CM1