CS0-003 CompTIA CyberSecurity Analyst CySA+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program’s execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of …3

The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1

The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.

Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.

Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23

Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.

Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362

The correct answer is B. Adversary emulation.

Adversary emulation is a technique that involves mimicking the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of a specific threat actor or group to test the effectiveness of the security controls and incident response capabilities of an organization1. Adversary emulation can help identify and address the gaps and weaknesses in the security posture of an organization, as well as improve the readiness and skills of the security team. Adversary emulation can also help measure the dwell time, which is the duration that a threat actor remains undetected inside the network2.

The other options are not the best techniques to meet the CISO’s goals. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a technique that involves scanning the network and systems for known vulnerabilities, but it does not simulate a real attack or test the incident response capabilities. Passive discovery © is a technique that involves collecting information about the network and systems without sending any packets or probes, but it does not identify or exploit any vulnerabilities or test the security controls. Bug bounty (D) is a program that involves rewarding external researchers or hackers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems or applications, but it does not focus on a specific threat actor or group.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:The SPF = PASS result confirms the email came from an authorized server, but DKIM = FAIL indicates the message was not properly signed with the expected DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) signature. DMARC = FAIL suggests that because DKIM failed, the overall email authentication failed. This scenario is consistent with a legitimate server sending an unsigned email.

The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.

SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation, and response, which is a term that describes a set of tools, technologies, or platforms that can help streamline, standardize, and automate security operations and incident response processes and tasks. SOAR can help minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, human errors, response time, or complexity. SOAR can also help enhance collaboration, coordination, efficiency, or effectiveness of security operations and incident response teams.

The malicious activity that was most likely attempted is SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery). This is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerable web application to make requests to other resources on behalf of the web server. In this case, the attacker tried to use the fopen function to access the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) on port 16, which could be a service that is not intended to be exposed to the public. The connection was refused, indicating that the port was closed or filtered. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Software and Application Security, page 66.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solutions are implemented to streamline security operations and improve efficiency. Key benefits include:

C. Reduce repetitive tasks: SOAR solutions automate routine and repetitive tasks, which helps reduce analyst workload and minimize human error.

F. Generate reports and metrics: SOAR platforms can automatically generate comprehensive reports and performance metrics, allowing organizations to track incident response times, analyze trends, and optimize security processes.

Other options are less relevant to the core functions of SOAR:

A. Minimize security attacks: While SOAR can aid in quicker response, it does not directly minimize the occurrence of attacks.

B. Itemize tasks for approval: Task itemization for approval is more relevant to project management tools.

D. Minimize setup complexity: SOAR solutions often require significant setup and integration with existing tools.

E. Define a security strategy: SOAR is more focused on automating response rather than strategy definition.

Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack

Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer that allows analysts to capture and inspect data packets traveling through a network. This makes it ideal for investigating unusual network activity, as it provides detailed insights into the nature and content of network traffic. In this case, Wireshark can help identify potentially malicious packets and understand the nature of the observed traffic. Options A (WAF) and C (EDR) are primarily used for monitoring and protecting web applications and endpoints, respectively, and Nmap (D) is typically used for network discovery and mapping, not detailed traffic analysis. According to CompTIA CySA+, packet analysis tools like Wireshark are invaluable for deep-dive investigations into network anomalies.

Weaponization is a factor that describes how an adversary develops or acquires an exploit or payload that can take advantage of a vulnerability and deliver a malicious effect. Weaponization can increase the severity or impact of a vulnerability, as it makes it easier or more likely for an attacker to exploit it successfully and cause damage or harm. Weaponization can also indicate the level of sophistication or motivation of an attacker, as well as the availability or popularity of an exploit or payload in the cyber threat landscape. In this case, an older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. This indicates that weaponization was the reason for this escalation. 

Registry artifacts and EDR data are two data sources that can provide valuable information about the root cause of a malware outbreak. Registry artifacts can reveal changes made by the malware to the system configuration, such as disabling security services, modifying startup items, or creating persistence mechanisms1. EDR data can capture the behavior and network activity of the malware, such as the initial infection vector, the command and control communication, or the lateral movement2. These data sources can help the analyst identify the malware family, the attack technique, and the threat actor behind the outbreak.

nessie.explosion should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest CVSSv3.1 exploitability score of 8.6. The exploitability score is a sub-score of the CVSSv3.1 base score, which reflects the ease and technical means by which the vulnerability can be exploited. The exploitability score is calculated based on four metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, and User Interaction. The higher the exploitability score, the more likely and feasible the vulnerability is to be exploited by an attacker12. nessie.explosion has the highest exploitability score because it has the lowest values for all four metrics: Network (AV:N), Low (AC:L), None (PR:N), and None (UI:N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, without requiring any user interaction or privileges, and with low complexity. Therefore, nessie.explosion poses the greatest threat to the end user workstations, and should be remediated first. vote.4p, sweet.bike, and great.skills have lower exploitability scores because they have higher values for some of the metrics, such as Adjacent Network (AV:A), High (AC:H), Low (PR:L), or Required (UI:R). This means that the vulnerabilities are more difficult or less likely to be exploited, as they require physical proximity, user involvement, or some privileges34. References: CVSS v3.1 Specification Document - FIRST, NVD - CVSS v3 Calculator, CVSS v3.1 User Guide - FIRST, CVSS v3.1 Examples - FIRST

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)is the best approach toidentify and resolve the underlying cause of recurring incidents. It involves a systematic investigation of logs, configurations, and operational data to pinpoint the reason behindpersistent security issues​.

Option A (Vulnerability assessment)helpsidentify security weaknessesbut does not focus onrecurring operational issues.

Option C (Recurrence reports)trackpatternsbut do notresolve the root cause.

Option D (Lessons learned)is valuable but is typicallya post-mortem discussion rather than an investigative method.

Thus,B is the correct answer, asroot cause analysis is the best approach for diagnosing recurring availability issues​.

The first action that should be completed to remediate the findings is to perform proper sanitization on all fields. Sanitization is a process that involves validating, filtering, or encoding any user input or data before processing or storing it on a system or application. Sanitization can help prevent various types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, or command injection, that exploit unsanitized input or data to execute malicious scripts, commands, or queries on a system or application. Performing proper sanitization on all fields can help address the most critical and common vulnerability found during the vulnerability assessment, which is XSS.

A discovery scan is a type of web application scanning that involves identifying active, internet-facing web applications and their URIs, without performing any intrusive or in-depth tests. This type of scan can help to understand the scope and structure of a web application before conducting more comprehensive vulnerability scans12. References: 1: OWASP Vulnerability Scanning Tools 2: CISA Web Application Scanning

The lessons learned process is the final stage of the incident management life cycle, where the incident team reviews the incident and evaluates the effectiveness of the response and the plans in place. The lessons learned report should include the who-what-when information and any recommendations for improvement123 References: 1: What is incident management? Steps, tips, and best practices 2: 5 Steps of the Incident Management Lifecycle | RSI Security 3: Navigating the Incident Response Life Cycle: A Comprehensive Guide

An information sharing organization is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, or lessons learned related to cybersecurity issues or incidents. An information sharing organization can help security analysts learn about new ransomware campaigns or other emerging threats, as well as get recommendations or guidance on how to prevent, detect, or respond to them. An information sharing organization can also help security analysts collaborate orcoordinate with other organizations in the same industry or region that may face similar threats or challenges.

The best practice for securing access to sensitive data is to implement multifactor authentication (MFA), which combines multiple factors of authentication to enhance security.

Option B (Biometrics + Device with a Personalized Code) uses two strong factors:

Biometrics (something you are)

A device with a personalized code (something you have)This combination significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access​.

Option A (Randomized Code) is good but weaker than biometrics because it relies only on something you have.

Option C (Passphrase) is single-factor authentication, which is susceptible to brute-force attacks​.

Option D (One-time Code + Push Notification) is useful, but email-based authentication can be vulnerable to phishing and MITM attacks.

When acritical vulnerabilityis identified, the immediate next step should be toassess the riskassociated with the vulnerability.

Risk assessment (Option B)helps determine the severity, exploitability, and business impact before deciding on mitigation measures.

Option A (delaying the fix)is dangerous because payment data theft can have severe consequences, including regulatory penalties and reputational damage.

Option C (ignoring the vulnerability)is incorrect because passing a compliance audit does not mean the system is secure.

Option D (isolating and reimaging)is an extreme measure that might not be necessary unless active exploitation is detected.

????Reference:CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Official Study Guide, Risk Management & Vulnerability Management Lifecycle.

Step 1: Analyzing the SFTP Log

The SFTP log provides a record of file transfer and login activities:

User “sjames” logged in from several IP addresses:

192.168.10.32 and 192.168.10.37 (internal network IPs)

32.111.16.37 and 41.21.18.102 (external IPs)

We see file alterations in the /var/www directory, which is commonly the web directory.

Modified files: about_us.html, index.html

Suspicious activity:

192.168.11.102 and 41.21.18.102 modified the files.

32.111.16.37 had failed login attempts, indicating possible unauthorized access attempts.

The most suspicious IP here is 41.21.18.102, as it’s associated with direct file modifications, possibly indicating unauthorized access.

Step 2: Reviewing Netstat

The netstat output shows active connections and their states:

IP 41.21.18.102 has an ESTABLISHED connection with port 22, commonly used for SFTP.

IP 32.111.16.37 is also attempting connections, and 32.111.16.37 connections are in a TIME_WAIT state, showing prior connections were recently closed.

The netstat output reaffirms 41.21.18.102 is actively connected and potentially involved in malicious activities.

Step 3: Checking the HTTP Access Log

The HTTP Access log shows access to about_us.html:

32.111.16.37 repeatedly accessed /about_us.html with 404 errors, indicating attempts to reach non-existing pages.

41.21.18.102 accessed the 200 status code, showing successful page requests, but since this IP was modifying files directly on the server, it might be testing or verifying changes.

Again, 41.21.18.102 stands out as it matches both successful file modification and page request patterns, while 32.111.16.37 shows unsuccessful attempts.

Step 4: Selecting the IP of Concern

Based on the above analysis:

Answer: 41.21.18.102 should be the IP of concern due to its direct file modifications on critical web files (about_us.html, index.html).

Step 5: Identifying the Indicator of Compromise

Potential indicators include unauthorized file modifications:

Modified index.html file is the correct answer, as it indicates direct changes to website content and is often a clear sign of compromise.

Step 6: Selecting Corrective Actions

To mitigate and prevent further compromise:

Change the password on the “sjames” account: The account was used across various IPs, indicating potential account compromise.

Block external SFTP access: Restricting SFTP to internal IPs only would prevent unauthorized external modifications. Since 41.21.18.102 was external, this would stop similar threats.

Summary

IP of Concern: 41.21.18.102

Indicator of Compromise: Modified index.html file

Corrective Actions:

Change the password on the sjames account

Block external SFTP access

These selections address both the immediate security breach and implement a preventative measure against future unauthorized access.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This scenario describes a strictgovernance policyrequiring multiple approvals for high-risk security group changes.Organizational governancerefers to policies that enforce security controls and approval workflows​.

Option B (MOU - Memorandum of Understanding)refers to agreements between parties, not internal security processes.

Option C (SLA - Service Level Agreement)refers to service guarantees, not security governance.

Option D (Business process interruption)might be a consequence, but it is not the primaryinhibitor to remediationin this case.

Thus,A is correct, as governance rules are restricting remediation speed.

Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.

/etc/shadow is the pattern that the security analyst can use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of the LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. LFI stands for Local File Inclusion, which is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to include local files on the web server into the output of a web application. LFI can be exploited to extract sensitive information from the web server, such as configuration files, passwords, or source code. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores the encrypted passwords of all users on a Linux system. If an attacker can exploit the LFI vulnerability to include this file into the web application output, they can obtain the credentials of the users on the web server. Therefore, the security analyst can look for /etc/shadow in the request line of the web server logs to see if any attacker has attempted or succeeded in exploiting the LFI vulnerability. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or thedestination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers

https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/

TCPDump is the best tool to prove whether the server was experiencing a DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessions consuming memory. TCPDump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network traffic, such as TCP, UDP, and ICMP packets. TCPDump can help the administrator to identify the source and destination of the traffic, the TCP flags and sequence numbers, the packet size and frequency, and other information that can indicate a DoS attack. A DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessions is also known as a SYN flood attack, which is a type of volumetric attack that aims to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target server by sending a large amount of TCPSYN requests and ignoring the TCP SYN-ACK responses. This creates a backlog of half-open connections on the server, which consume memory and CPU resources, and prevent legitimate connections from being established12. TCPDump can help the administrator to detect a SYN flood attack by looking for a high number of TCP SYN packets with different source IP addresses, a low number of TCP SYN-ACK packets, and a very low number of TCP ACK packets34. References: SYN flood DDoS attack | Cloudflare, What is a SYN flood attack and how to prevent it? | NETSCOUT, TCPDump - A Powerful Tool for Network Analysis and Security, How to Detect a SYN Flood Attack with TCPDump

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:To match the mitigation criteria, we analyze each machine’s CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) attributes:

Attack Vector (AV): N for network (matches the requirement of network-based attack).

Attack Complexity (AC): L for low (meets the requirement for low complexity).

Privileges Required (PR): N for none (indicating no privileges are needed).

User Interaction (UI): N for none (matches the requirement that no user action is needed).

Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), and Availability (A): Requires high confidentiality and availability with low integrity.

From these criteria:

Computer1 requires user interaction (UI:R), which disqualifies it.

Computer2 has a local attack vector (AV:L), which disqualifies it for a network-based attack.

Computer3 has a high attack complexity (AC:H), which does not meet the low complexity requirement.

Computer4 meets all criteria: network attack vector, low complexity, no privileges, no user interaction, and appropriate confidentiality, integrity, and availability levels.

Thus, Computer4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. System hardening.

System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface, applying patches and updates, configuring security settings, and implementing security controls. System hardening can help prevent or mitigate vulnerability events that may affect operating systems. Host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication are examples of security controls that can be applied to harden a system1.

The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization © is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.

The correct answer is B. Metrics.

The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.

The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the affected resources.

In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.

The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Automatingthe generation of NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) rulesbased onStructured Threat Information eXpression (STIX) messagesis apractical use of automationin security operations​.

Option B (Privileged access requests)should involve human oversight due to thehigh risk of unauthorized access.

Option C (PKI identity verification)requires manualdocument verificationandhuman approval.

Option D (Malware analysis)often requiressandboxing and behavioral analysis, which benefit from human expertise.

Thus,A is the correct answer, asautomating threat intelligence ingestion and rule creation enhances efficiency in intrusion detection​.

The correct answer is D. Disconnect the access point from the network.

A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has been installed on a network without the authorization or knowledge of the network administrator. A rogue access point can pose a serious security risk, as it can allow unauthorized users to access the network, intercept network traffic, or launch attacks against the network or its devices1234.

The first action that should be taken to protect the network while preserving evidence is to disconnect the rogue access point from the network. This will prevent any further damage or compromise of the network by blocking the access point from communicating with other devices or users. Disconnecting the rogue access point will also preserve its state and configuration, which can be useful for forensic analysis and investigation. Disconnecting the rogue access point can be done physically by unplugging it from the network port or wirelessly by disabling its radio frequency5.

The other options are not the best actions to take first, as they may not protect the network or preserve evidence effectively.

Option A is not the best action to take first, as running a packet sniffer to monitor traffic to and from the access point may not stop the rogue access point from causing harm to the network. A packet sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network packets, which are units of data that travel across a network. A packet sniffer can be useful for identifying and troubleshooting network problems, but it may not be able to prevent or block malicious traffic from a rogue access point. Moreover, running a packet sniffer may require additional time and resources, which could delay the response and mitigation of the incident5.

Option B is not the best action to take first, as connecting to the access point and examining its log files may not protect the network or preserve evidence. Connecting to the access point may expose the analyst’s device or credentials to potential attacks or compromise by the rogue access point. Examining its log files may provide some information about the origin and activity of the rogue access point, but it may also alter or delete some evidence that could be useful for forensic analysis and investigation. Furthermore, connecting to the access point and examining its log files may not prevent or stop the rogue access point from continuing to harm the network5.

Option C is not the best action to take first, as identifying who is connected to the access point and attempting to find the attacker may not protect the network or preserve evidence. Identifying who is connected to the access point may require additional tools or techniques, such as scanning for wireless devices or analyzing network traffic, which could take time and resources away from responding and mitigating the incident. Attempting to find the attacker may also be difficult or impossible, as the attacker may use various methods to hide their identity or location, such as encryption, spoofing, or proxy servers. Moreover, identifying who is connected to the access point and attempting to find the attacker may not prevent or stop the rogue access point from causing further damage or compromise to the network5.

Testing is a crucial step in any change management process, as it ensures that the change is compatible with the existing systems and does not cause any errors or disruptions. In this case, the change management team failed to test the email client patch on Windows 11 devices, which resulted in a widespread issue for the users. Testing would have revealed the problem before the patch was deployed, and allowed the team to fix it or postpone the change.

The lessons-learned register is an essential document that captures insights and feedback from past exercises or incidents, highlighting what went well and what did not. By utilizing this register, the SOC manager can identify specific areas for improvement and develop actionable steps to enhance future response efforts. According to CompTIA’s CySA+ and Security+ guidance, lessons learned fromtabletop exercises are crucial for iterative improvements in an incident response plan. Options A, B, and C are useful resources, but the lessons-learned register specifically focuses on reflection and improvement, which is the primary objective in this context.

Port 3389 is commonly used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a service that allows remote access to a system. A vulnerability on this port could allow an attacker to compromise the web server or use it as a pivot point to access other systems. However, if the firewall blocks this port, the risk of exploitation is reduced.

The best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. Forexample, a report for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

Implementing input validation is the best way to mitigate the buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or unexpected input, and protect the application from being compromised12. References: How to detect, prevent, and mitigate buffer overflow attacks - Synopsys, How to mitigate buffer overflow vulnerabilities | Infosec

Part 1:

Part 2:

Based on the compliance report, I recommend the following changes for each server:

AppServ1: No changes are needed for this server.

AppServ2: Disable or upgrade TLS 1.0 and TLS 1.1 to TLS 1.2 on this server to ensure secure encryption and communication between clients and the server. Update Apache from version 2.4.17 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs.

AppServ3: Downgrade Apache from version 2.4.19 to version 2.4.18 or lower on this server to ensure compatibility and stability with the company’s applications and policies. Change the port number from 8080 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.

AppServ4: Update Apache from version 2.4.16 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs. Change the port number from 8443 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.

The output shows that port 80 is open and running an HTTP service, indicating that the host could potentially be vulnerable to web-based attacks. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: the host is responsive to the ICMP request, as shown by the “Host is up” message; the host is not running a mail server, as there is no SMTP or POP3 service detected; the host is not allowing unsecured FTP connections, as there is no FTP service detected.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition123, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of nmap, a popular network scanning tool, in chapter 5. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each option in nmap, such as “-sV” for version detection2, page 195. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

PID 2264 (bash running as root) is suspicious because:

It has elevated privileges (root user).

Bash (command-line shell) is running with high CPU usage (14.0%), which is unusual unless actively being used.

If unauthorized, an attacker could be exfiltrating data via command-line methods like scp, wget, or custom scripts.

Why Not Other Options?

B (34218 - Xorg) → Xorg is a display server for GUI; no signs of exfiltration.

C (34834 - Cinnamon) → Cinnamon is a desktop environment, not a threat.

D (35963 - xrdp) → xrdp is a remote desktop service, expected behavior.

The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms.

Risk Acceptance means acknowledging a risk and choosing not to take further action because the cost of mitigation may outweigh the benefits.

It is the last resort when:

The risk is low impact or unlikely to occur.

Other options (mitigation, transfer, avoidance) are not feasible.

Why Not Other Options?

A (Transfer) → Moving risk to a third party (e.g., insurance).

C (Mitigation) → Implementing security controls to reduce risk.

D (Avoidance) → Eliminating the risk entirely (e.g., discontinuing a service).

A nation-state actor is a group or individual that conducts cyberattacks on behalf of a government or a political entity. They are usually motivated by national interests, such as espionage, sabotage, or influence operations. They are often highly skilled, resourced, and persistent, and they operate with the protection or support of their state sponsors. Therefore, they are less likely to be concerned with the forensic analysis for legal action of their actions, as they are unlikely to face prosecution or extradition in their own country or by international law. They are more likely to be concerned with the detection by the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. The MITRE ATT&CK framework can help defenders identify, prevent, and respond to cyberattacks by nation-state actors. They are also likely to be concerned with the detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities, which are the preliminary steps of cyberattacks that involve gathering information about the target, such as vulnerabilities, network topology, or user credentials. Reconnaissance activities can expose the presence, intent, and capabilities of the attackers, and allow defenders to take countermeasures. Finally, they are likely to be concerned with the examination of their actions and objectives, which can reveal their motives, strategies, and goals, and help defenders understand their threat profile and attribution.

The most likely reason to include lessons learned in an after-action report is to identify areas of improvement in the incident response process. The lessons learned process is a way of reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying areas of improvement in the incident response process can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents, as well as provide feedback or recommendations on how to address any issues or challenges.

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that describes the relationship between four components of a cyberattack: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. It helps analysts understand the behavior and motivation of threat actors, as well as the tools and methods they use to compromise their targets12. References: Main Analytical Frameworks for Cyber Threat Intelligence, section 4; Strategies, tools, and frameworks for building an effective threat intelligence team, section 3.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:A tabletop exercise is a structured simulation that allows teams to practice and evaluate their incident response procedures and coordination without actual operational impact. These exercises are used to identify gaps in processes and ensure preparedness for real-world threats.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Phishing attacks arebest mitigated through user education and training. The50% reduction in phishing attemptssuggests a strongawareness programthat improved employee vigilance​.

Option A (Patching)helps prevent exploits but does notdirectly reduce phishing attempts.

Option B (Configuration management)ensures proper system setup but does notaddress phishing prevention.

Option D (Threat modeling)is useful for security planning but does notactively reduce phishing attempts.

Thus,C is the correct answer, asawareness training significantly decreases phishing success rates by educating employees on email-based threats​.

Based on the list of hosts and their functions, DCEast01, which is a Domain Controller, would be the most pivotal in the distribution of an encryption binary via Group Policy. Domain Controllers are responsible for security and administrative policies within a Windows Domain. Group Policy is a feature of Windows that facilitates a wide range of advanced settings that administrators can use to control the working environment of user accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy can be used to deploy software, which in this case would be the encryption binary of the ransomware. SQL01 is a database server and unlikely to be used for this purpose. WK10-Sales07 and WK7-Plant01 are client machines, and HQAdmin9, although it is a network admin laptop, would not typically be used to distribute policies across a network.

The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.

The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. Thecritical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019-0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE-2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.

The best recommendations to prevent an XSS vulnerability from being exploited are to implement a compensating control in the source code and to fix the vulnerability using a virtual patch at the WAF. A compensating control is a technique that mitigates the risk of a vulnerability by adding additional security measures, such as input validation, output encoding, or HTML sanitization. A virtual patch is a rule that blocks or modifies malicious requests or responses at the WAF level, without modifying the application code. These recommendations are effective, efficient, and less disruptive than the other options. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156; Cross Site Scripting Prevention Cheat Sheet, Section: XSS Defense Philosophy.

The first and most urgent step to mitigate the impact of compromised credentials on the dark web is to perform a forced password reset for the affected user. This will prevent the cybercriminals from using the stolen credentials to access the company’s network and systems. Multifactor authentication is a good security measure, but it is not foolproof and can be bypassed by sophisticated attackers. Therefore, changing the password as soon as possible is the best practice to reduce the risk of a data breach or other cyber attack123 References: 1: How to monitor the dark web for compromised employee credentials 2: How to prevent corporate credentials ending up on the dark web 3: Data Breach Prevention: Identifying Leaked Credentials on the Dark Web

Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications without needing to re-enter credentials for each one.

It reduces password fatigue, improves security, and streamlines authentication across vendor portals.

Why Not Other Options?

A (API) → APIs facilitate data exchange but do not solve authentication problems.

B (MFA) → Enhances security but still requires multiple logins.

D (VPN) → Secures connections but does not eliminate multiple logins.

This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

A compensating control is an alternative measure that provides a similar level of protection as the original control, but is used when the original control is not feasible or cost-effective. In this case, the CISO should develop a compensating control to mitigate the risk of the vulnerability in the ACE software, such as implementing additional monitoring, firewall rules, or encryption, until the issue can be fixed permanently by the developers. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 197; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 205.

Enabling a user account lockout policy is a security measure that can effectively mitigate brute-force attacks. After a predetermined number of consecutive failed login attempts, the account will be locked, preventing the attacker from continuing to try different password combinations. This control directly addresses the issue of multiple failed attempts from the same IP address using a single user account, making it the most effective among the options provided. Option B suggests replacing RDP with another remote access tool, which does not address the brute-force attempt but rather avoids the RDP protocol. Option C, implementing a firewall block, could be effective but does not prevent attacks from other IP addresses and may not be as immediate. Option D, increasing log verbosity, enhances monitoring but does not prevent the attack itself.

After recovering a compromised server to its previous state, the analyst should perform forensic analysis to determine the root cause, impact, and scope of the incident, as well as to identify any indicators of compromise, evidence, or artifacts that can be used for further investigation or prosecution. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 244; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 253.

SQL injection is a type of attack that injects malicious SQL statements into a web application’s input fields or parameters, in order to manipulate or access the underlying database. The request shown in the image contains an SQL injection attempt, as indicated by the “UNION SELECT” statement, which is used to combine the results of two or more queries. The attacker is trying to extract information from the database by appending the malicious query to the original one

Placing a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox is the best action to perform first, as it preserves all mailbox content, including deleted items and original versions of modified items, for potential legal or forensic purposes. A legal hold is a feature that allows an administrator to retain mailbox data for a user indefinitely or for a specified period, regardless of the user’s actions or retention policies. A legal hold can be applied to a mailbox using Litigation Hold or In-Place Hold in Exchange Server or Exchange Online. A legal hold can help to ensure that evidence of data exfiltration or other malicious activities is not lost or tampered with, and that the organization can comply with any legal or regulatory obligations. The other actions are not as urgent or effective as placing a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox, as they do not address the immediate threat of data loss or compromise. Enabling filtering on the web proxy may help to prevent some types of data exfiltration or malicious traffic, but it does nothelp to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Disabling the public email access with CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) may help to block or monitor the use of public email services by employees, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Configuring a deny rule on the firewall may help to block or monitor the network traffic from the employee’s laptop, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally.

An incident response plan (IRP) is a document that defines the roles and responsibilities, procedures, and guidelines for responding to a security incident. It helps the security team to act quickly and effectively, minimizing the impact and cost of the incident. An IRP should specify who should conduct the next steps following a security event, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and analysis12. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 362; 6 Incident Response Steps to Take After a Security Event, section 2.

Cloud-specific misconfigurations are security issues that arise from improper or inadequate configuration of cloud resources, such as storage buckets, databases, virtual machines, or containers. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners that are designed for on-premises environments, as they may not have the visibility or access to the cloud resources or the cloud provider’s APIs. Therefore, one of the implications that should be considered on the new hybrid environment is that cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners.

D ("grnail.com") is a suspicious domain that resembles "gmail.com."

The high "bytes out" value (525,984 bytes) indicates potential data exfiltration.

Attackers often use typosquatting (e.g., "grnail.com" instead of "gmail.com") to trick users into visiting malicious sites.

Why Not Other Options?

A (Netflix, B YouTube, C TikTok) → Large downloads, but expected behavior for streaming sites.

E (Google Translate) → Low data volume, no exfiltration risk.

F (Office.com) → Microsoft service, no indication of malicious activity.

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that helps analysts to understand the relationships between the adversary, the victim, the infrastructure, and the capability involved in an attack. It also enables analytical pivoting, which is the process of moving from one piece of information to another related one, and identifies knowledge gaps that need further investigation. 

USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.

The MTTR (Mean Time to Resolution) decreases by 20% is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve, as it reflects the improvement in the efficiency and effectiveness of the incident response process by reducing analyst alert fatigue. Analyst alert fatigue is a term that refers to the phenomenon of security analysts becoming overwhelmed, desensitized, or exhausted by the large number of alerts they receive from various security tools or systems, such as DLP (Data Loss Prevention) or CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker). DLP is a security solution that helps to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data, such as personal information, intellectual property, or financial records. CASB is a security solution that helps to monitor and control the use of cloud-based applications and services, such as SaaS (Software as a Service), PaaS (Platform as a Service), or IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service). Both DLP and CASB can generate alerts when they detect potential data breaches, policy violations, or malicious activities, but they can also produce false positives, irrelevant information, or duplicate notifications that can overwhelm or distract the security analysts. Analyst alert fatigue can have negative consequences for the security posture and performance of an organization, such as missing or ignoring critical alerts, delaying or skipping investigations or remediations, making errors or mistakes, or losing motivation or morale. Therefore, it is important to reduce analyst alert fatigue and optimize the alert management process by using various strategies, such as tuning the alert thresholds and rules, prioritizing and triaging the alerts based on severity and context, enriching and correlating the alerts with additional data sources, automating or orchestrating repetitive or low-level tasks or actions, or integrating and consolidating different security tools or systems into a unified platform. By reducing analyst alert fatigue and optimizing the alert management process, the effort hopes to achieve a decrease in the MTTR, which is a metric that measures the average time it takes to resolve an incident from the moment it is reported to the moment it is closed. Alower MTTR indicates a faster and more effective incident response process, which can help to minimize the impact and damage of security incidents, improve customer satisfaction and trust, and enhance security operations and outcomes. The other options are not as relevant or realistic as the MTTR decreases by 20%, as they do not reflect the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20% is not a relevant outcome, as it does not indicate any improvement in the incident response process or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM ingestion logs are records of the data that is ingested by the SIEM system from different sources. Reducing SIEM ingestion logs may imply less data volume or less data sources for the SIEM system, which may not necessarily improve its performance or accuracy. Phishing alerts drop by 20% is not a realistic outcome, as it does not depend on the integration of DLP and CASB or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. Phishing alerts are notifications that indicate potential phishing attempts or attacks, such as fraudulent emails, websites, or messages that try to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware. Phishing alerts can be generated by various security tools or systems, such as email security solutions, web security solutions, endpoint security solutions, or user awareness training programs. Reducing phishing alerts may imply less phishing attempts or attacks on the organization, which may not necessarily be influenced by the integration of DLP and CASB or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. False positive rates drop to 20% is not a realistic outcome

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The nmap scan results show that Telnet (port 23) is open. Telnet transmits data, including credentials, in plaintext, which is insecure and should be disabled to enhance security. Here’s an explanation of each option:

A. Disable all protocols that do not use encryption

Explanation: Disabling unencrypted protocols (such as Telnet) reduces exposure to man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks and credential sniffing. Telnet should be replaced with a secure protocol like SSH, which provides encryption for transmitted data.

B. Configure client certificates for domain services

Explanation: While client certificates enhance authentication security, they are more relevant to services like LDAP over SSL (port 636), which is already secure. This would not address the Telnet vulnerability.

C. Ensure that this system is behind a NGFW

Explanation: A Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) provides enhanced network security, but it may not mitigate the risks of unencrypted protocols if they are allowed internally.

D. Deploy a publicly trusted root CA for secure websites

Explanation: Public root CAs are used for website authentication and encryption, relevant only if this system is hosting a publicly accessible HTTPS service. It would not impact Telnet security.

To mitigate brute-force attacks, implementing an account lockout policy (C) prevents continuous attempts by locking the account after a set number of failed logins. Blocking inbound connections on TCP port 3389 (RDP) from untrusted IP addresses (F) limits access, reducing the attack surface. According to CompTIA Security+, these controls effectively prevent unauthorized access. While blocking specific IPs (D) or disabling RDP (E) can also help, the lockout and firewall rules provide broader, proactive protection against this attack type.

Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are pieces of data or evidence that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker or malware. IoCs can include IP addresses, domain names, URLs, file hashes, registry keys, network traffic patterns, user behaviors, or system anomalies. IoCs can be used to detect, analyze, and respond to security incidents, as well as to share threat intelligence with other organizations or authorities. IoCs can produce the data needed for an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization, as they can provide information on the source, nature, scope, impact, and mitigation of the threats.

CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. References: Server and Workstation Patch Management Policy, Section: Policy; Patch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024, Section: What is a patch management policy?

The correct answer is A. Orange team.

An orange team is a team that is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity. An orange team assists the yellow team, which is the management or leadership team that oversees the cybersecurity strategy and governance of an organization. An orange team helps the yellow team to understand the cybersecurity risks and challenges, as well as the roles and responsibilities of other teams, such as the red, blue, and purple teams12.

In this scenario, the analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques. This means that the analyst is observing and evaluating the performance of another team that is simulating real-world attacks against the organization’s systems or networks. This could be either a red team or a purple team, depending on whether they are working independently or collaboratively with the defensive team345.

The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. This means that the analyst is providing guidance and feedback to the team on how to conduct their testing and what techniques to use. This could also involve setting up scenarios, objectives, rules of engagement, and success criteria for the testing. This implies that the analyst is facilitating and training the team to improve their skills and capabilities in cybersecurity12.

Therefore, based on these descriptions, the analyst is a member of an orange team, which is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity.

The other options are incorrect because they do not match the role and function of the analyst in this scenario.

Option B is incorrect because a blue team is a defensive security team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems and networks from real or simulated attacks. A blue team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather defends against them345.

Option C is incorrect because a red team is an offensive security team that discovers and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems or networks by simulating real-world attacks. A red team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather performs them345.

Option D is incorrect because a purple team is not a separate security team, but rather a collaborative approach between the red and blue teams to improve the organization’s overall security. A purple team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather works with them345.

The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the certificate is renewed or replaced. Thiscan affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.

A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the security weaknesses of a system or network. A vulnerability scan can help a security analyst to effectively identify the most security risks associated with a locally hosted server, such as missing patches, misconfigurations, outdated software, or exposed services. A vulnerability scan can also provide recommendations on how to remediate the identified vulnerabilities and improve the security posture of the server12 References: 1: What is a Vulnerability Scan? | Definition and Examples 2: Securing a server: risks, challenges and best practices - Vaadata

The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:

TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No

This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.

MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.

Based on the events in the log, the most likely occurrence is that an adversary is performing a vulnerability scan. The log shows LDAP read operations and EDR enumerating local groups, which are indicative of an adversary scanning the system to find vulnerabilities or sensitive information. The final entry shows SMB connection attempts to multiple hosts from a single host, which could be a sign of network discovery or lateral movement. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161; Monitor logs from vulnerability scanners, Section: Reports on Nessus vulnerability data.

Performing input validation before allowing submission is the best recommendation for remediation of this application vulnerability. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or unexpected input, and protect the user credentials and other sensitive data from being compromised12. References: Input Validation - OWASP, 4 Most Common Application Vulnerabilities and Possible Remediation

The system “blane” with the vulnerability name “snakedoctor” should be prioritized for patching as it has a network attack vector (AV:N), low attack complexity (AC:L), and high availability (A:H). These metrics indicate that it would be relatively easy to exploit this vulnerability over the internet, and the system is highly available. References: According to the CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, the exploitability metrics for CVSS are Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, and Scope. These metrics measure how the vulnerability is accessed, the complexity of the attack, and the level of interaction and privileges required to exploit the vulnerability. The image shows a table with the values of these metrics for each system and vulnerability. Based on these values, the system “blane” has the highest exploitability score, as it has the most favorable conditions for an attacker. The other systems have either a lower attack vector, higher attack complexity, or lower availability, which make them less exploitable. Therefore, the system “blane” should be patched first.

A rollback had been executed on the instance. If a database server is restored to a previous state, it may reintroduce a vulnerability that was previously fixed. This can happen due to backup and recovery operations, configuration changes, or software updates. A rollback can undo the patching or mitigation actions that were applied to remediate the vulnerability. References: Vulnerability Remediation: It’s Not Just Patching, Section: The Remediation Process; Vulnerability assessment for SQL Server, Section: Remediation

Business process interruption is the inhibitor to remediation that this scenario illustrates. Business process interruption is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident requires the disruption or suspension of a critical or essential business process, such as the point-of-sale application. This can cause operational, financial, or reputational losses for the organization, and may outweigh the benefits of the remediation. Therefore, the organization may decide to postpone or avoid the remediation until a more convenient time, such as a change freeze window, which is a period of time when no changes are allowed to the IT environment12. Service-level agreement, degrading functionality, and proprietary system are other possible inhibitors to remediation, but they are not relevant to this scenario. Service-level agreement is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident violates or affects the contractual obligations or expectations of the service provider or the customer. Degrading functionality is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident reduces or impairs the performance or usability of a system or an application. Proprietary system is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident involves a system or an application that is owned or controlled by a third party, and the organization has limited or no access or authority to modify it3. References: Inhibitors to Remediation — SOC Ops Simplified, Remediation Inhibitors - CompTIA CySA+, Information security Vulnerability Management Report (Remediation…

The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the virtual server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server’s data and state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.

The best way to prevent network printers from printing pages during a vulnerability scan is to create a tailored scan for the printer subnet that excludes the ports and services that trigger the printing behavior. The other options are not effective for this purpose: performing non-credentialed scans may not reduce the impact on the printers; ignoring embedded web server ports may not cover all the possible ports that cause printing; increasing the threshold length of the scan timeout may not prevent the printing from occurring.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Performing a vulnerability scan during the recovery phase ensures that corrective actions, such as patches or configuration changes, have effectively addressed the vulnerabilities exploited during the incident. This step validates the system’s security before fully restoring operations.

The analyst used the command nmap -sV -T4 -F insecure.org to discover the application versions on the vulnerable website. The -sV option in Nmap is used to perform version detection, which identifies the versions of the services running on open ports. The -T4 option sets the timing template for faster execution, and -F scans only the most common ports.

Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:

https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/

https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/

Digital signatures ensure the integrity and non-repudiation of emails. Integrity ensures that the message has not been altered in transit, as the digital signature would be invalidated if the content were tampered with. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender cannot deny having sent the email, as the digital signature is unique to their identity. These principles are crucial for legal validity, as recommended by CompTIA Security+ standards. Confidentiality (A) and privacy (C) relate to encryption, while authorization (F) and anonymity (D) are unrelated to the primary purpose of digital signatures in this context.

DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators of DNS exfiltration, such as:

DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.

The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data transferred.

The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the DNS packets.

Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/

https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/

In case of a phishing attack, it’s crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 255.

The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server’s data and state at a specific point in time. Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence.

C. Impossible geo-velocity: This is an event where a single user's account is accessed from different geographical locations within a timeframe that is impossible for normal human travel. In the log, we can see that the user "jdoe" is accessing from the United States and then within a few minutes from Russia, which is practically impossible to achieve without the use of some form of automated system or if the account credentials are being used by different individuals in different locations.

B. Push phishing: This could also be an indication of push phishing, where the user is tricked into approving a multi-factor authentication request that they did not initiate. This is less clear from the logs directly, but it could be inferred if the user is receiving MFA requests that they are not initiating and are being approved without their genuine desire to access the resources.

The correct answer is B. It proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors.

TAXII, or Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, is a standard protocol for sharing cyber threat intelligence in a standardized, automated, and secure manner. TAXII defines how cyber threat information can be shared via services and message exchanges, such as discovery, collection management, inbox, and poll. TAXII is designed to support STIX, or Structured Threat Information eXpression, which is a standardized language for describing cyber threat information in a readable and consistent format. Together, STIX and TAXII form a framework for sharing and using threat intelligence, creating an open-source platform that allows users to search through records containing attack vectors details such as malicious IP addresses, malware signatures, and threat actors123.

The importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program is that it proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors. By using TAXII, organizations can exchange cyber threat information with various entities, such as security vendors, government agencies, industry associations, or trusted groups. TAXII enables different sharing models, such as hub and spoke, source/subscriber, or peer-to-peer, depending on the needs and preferences of the information producers and consumers. TAXII also supports different levels of access control, encryption, and authentication to ensure the security and privacy of the shared information123.

By implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program, organizations can benefit from the following advantages:

They can receive timely and relevant information about the latest threats and vulnerabilities that may affect their systems or networks.

They can leverage the collective knowledge and experience of other organizations that have faced similar or related threats.

They can improve their situational awareness and threat detection capabilities by correlating and analyzing the shared information.

They can enhance their incident response and mitigation strategies by applying the best practices and recommendations from the shared information.

They can contribute to the overall improvement of cyber security by sharing their own insights and feedback with other organizations123.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program.

Option A is incorrect because TAXII does not provide a structured way to gain information about insider threats. Insider threats are malicious activities conducted by authorized users within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners. Insider threats can be detected by using various methods, such as user behavior analysis, data loss prevention, or anomaly detection. However,TAXII is not designed to collect or share information about insider threats specifically. TAXII is more focused on external threats that originate from outside sources, such as hackers, cybercriminals, or nation-states4.

Option C is incorrect because TAXII does not exchange messages in the most cost-effective way and requires little maintenance once implemented. TAXII is a protocol that defines how messages are exchanged, but it does not specify the cost or maintenance of the exchange. The cost and maintenance of implementing TAXII depend on various factors, such as the type and number of services used, the volume and frequency of data exchanged, the security and reliability requirements of the exchange, and the availability and compatibility of existing tools and platforms. Implementing TAXII may require significant resources and efforts from both the information producers and consumers to ensure its functionality and performance5.

Option D is incorrect because TAXII is not a semi-automated solution to gather threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector. TAXII is a fully automated solution that enables the exchange of threat intelligence among various entities across different sectors. TAXII does not target or collect information about specific competitors in the same sector. Rather, it aims to foster collaboration and cooperation among organizations that share common interests or goals in cyber security. Moreover, gathering threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector may raise ethical and legal issues that are beyond the scope of TAXII.

SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is a DNS TXT record that lists authorized sending IP addresses for a given domain. If an email hosting provider added a new data center with new public IP addresses, theSPF record needs to be updated to include those new IP addresses, otherwise the emails from the new data center may fail SPF checks and get blocked by spam filters123 References: 1: Use DMARC to validate email, setup steps 2: How to set up SPF, DKIM and DMARC: other mail & hosting providers providers 3: Set up SPF, DKIM, or DMARC records for my hosting email

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Thegoal of forensic analysisin a post-incident scenario is to identify theroot causeof the incident. This helps prevent future occurrences and enhances the security posture of the organization​.

Option A (Full picture of risks)is more aligned with a risk assessment rather than forensic analysis.

Option B (Notifying law enforcement)depends on the situation, but forensic analysis is performed even when legal action is not involved.

Option C (Further containment)is part of incident response, but forensic analysis happensaftercontainment.

Thus,D is the correct answer, asdetermining root cause is the key objective of forensic analysis​.

Penetration testing is the best strategy to evaluate the security of the software without the source code. Penetration testing is a type of security testing that simulates real-world attacks on the software to identify and exploit its vulnerabilities. Penetration testing can be performed on the software as a black box, meaning that the tester does not need to have access to the source code or the internal structure of the software. Penetration testing can help the analyst to assess the security posture of the software, the potential impact of the vulnerabilities, and the effectiveness of the existing security controls12. Static testing, vulnerability testing, and dynamic testing are other types of security testing, but they usually require access to the source code or the internal structure of the software. Static testing is the analysis of the software code or design without executing it. Vulnerability testing is the identification and evaluation of the software weaknesses or flaws. Dynamic testing is the analysis of the software code or design while executing it345. References: Penetration Testing - OWASP, What is a Penetration Test and How Does It Work?, Static Code Analysis | OWASP Foundation, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices, Dynamic Testing - OWASP

OWASP ZAP (Zed Attack Proxy) is a tool recommended for quickly testing web applications for vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, path traversal, and cross-site scripting. It is an open-source web application security scanner that helps identify security issues in web applications during the development and testing phases.

Implementing controls to block execution of untrusted applications can prevent privilege escalation attacks that leverage native Windows tools, such as PowerShell, WMIC, or Rundll32. These tools canbe used by attackers to run malicious code or commands with elevated privileges, bypassing system security policies and controls. By restricting the execution of untrusted applications, organizations can reduce the attack surface and limit the potential damage of privilege escalation attacks.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures (VDIs) are the most suitable choice to ensure consistent security across different locations. Non-persistent VDIs revert to their original state after a session, reducing the risk of data leakage or malware persistence. These systems are centrally managed, ensuring uniform security policies regardless of the user's location.

The scanner is running in active mode, which is the cause of this issue. Active mode is a type of vulnerability scanning that sends probes or requests to the target systems to test their responses and identify potential vulnerabilities. Active mode can provide more accurate and comprehensive results, but it can also cause more network traffic, performance degradation, or system instability. In some cases, active mode can trigger denial-of-service (DoS) conditions or crash the target systems, especially if they are not configured to handle the scanning requests or if they have underlying vulnerabilities that can be exploited by the scanner12. Therefore, the analyst should use caution when performing active mode scanning, and avoid scanning business-critical or sensitive systems without proper authorization and preparation3. References: Vulnerability Scanning for my Server - Spiceworks Community, Negative Impacts of Automated Vulnerability Scanners and How … - Acunetix, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices

The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance)helps organizationsprevent email spoofing and phishing by enforcing policies based on SPF and DKIM​.

Option B (DKIM - DomainKeys Identified Mail)verifies message integritybut does not enforce policies.

Option C (SPF - Sender Policy Framework)prevents spoofingbut is not as comprehensive as DMARC.

Option D (SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)is just anemail delivery protocol, not a security control.

Thus,A (DMARC) is the correct answer, asit combines SPF and DKIM to prevent spoofing and phishing attacks​.

The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is A. CIS Benchmarks. CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software. They are developed by a global community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently1

PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001 are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) would have reduced the complexity of identity and access management in cloud-based assets. CASBs provide visibility into cloud application usage, data protection, and governance for cloud-based services.

A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site’s standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company’s domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company’s VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company’s employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

This option represents the least impactful risk because it has the lowest base score among the four options, and it also requires high privileges, user interaction, and high attack complexity to exploit, which reduces the likelihood of a successful attack.

The best practice that the company should follow with this proxy is to decommission the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy involves removing or disposing of the proxy from the rack and the network, as well as deleting or wiping any data or configuration on the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy can help eliminate the vulnerability on the proxy, as well as reduce the attack surface, complexity, or cost of maintaining the network. Decommissioning the proxy can also free up space or resources for other devices or systems that are in use or needed by the company.

APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) enable integration and automation across different vendor platforms within a SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution. They allow security tools to communicate and execute automated actions, making them essential for orchestrating responses across diverse systems and platforms. While STIX/TAXII provides standards for threat information sharing, and data enrichment enhances context, APIs are the primary means of enabling cross-platform automation, as recommended in CompTIA CySA+ materials on SOAR operations.

Fuzzing is a process used to test applications by inputting unexpected or random data to see how the application behaves. This method is particularly effective in identifying vulnerabilities such as buffer overflows, input validation errors, and other anomalies that could cause the application to crash or behave unexpectedly. By using fuzzing, the security team can ensure the new application is robust and capable of handling unexpected strings with anomalous formats without crashing.

In this scenario, the security analyst is presented with multiple vulnerabilities, including a critical zero-day vulnerability affecting the web server with a CVSS score of 10. The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized method for rating IT vulnerabilities, with a score of 10 indicating the highest severity.

Option A:Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.

Correct Choice:Given the critical nature of a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10, immediate action is warranted to prevent potential exploitation. Shutting down the affected web server reduces the attack surface and mitigates the risk until a patch or workaround is available. This aligns with incident response best practices, where containment is a priority to prevent further damage.

Option B:Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.

Incorrect Choice:While monitoring for patches is essential, it is a reactive approach. In the case of a zero-day vulnerability with active exploitation potential, waiting for a patch without implementing immediate protective measures exposes the organization to significant risk.

Option C:Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.

Incorrect Choice:Re-scanning may confirm the vulnerability's presence but does not address the immediate threat. Action to mitigate the risk should take precedence over verification, especially when the vulnerability is known and critical.

Option D:Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.

Incorrect Choice:Communicating with the web security team is important; however, in the face of a critical zero-day vulnerability, immediate action (such as shutting down the affected asset) is necessary before addressing other vulnerabilities.

Non-persistent Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is the best solution because:

Users access a centrally managed, secure virtual desktop regardless of location.

No data is stored locally, preventing data theft on compromised devices.

Each session is reset upon logout, eliminating malware persistence.

Why Not Other Options?

B (Passwordless authentication) → Improves security but does not ensure the same security level across different locations.

C (Standard-issue laptops) → Helps with consistency but does not protect against untrusted networks.

D (Serverless workloads) → Focuses on application infrastructure, not user security.

The correct answer is C. Legal department.

According to the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam objectives, one of the tasks for a security analyst is to “report and escalate security incidents to appropriate stakeholders and authorities” 1. This includes reporting any inappropriate use of resources, such as installing cryptominers on workstations, which may violate the company’s policies and cause financial and reputational damage. The legal department is the most appropriate group to escalate this issue to first, as they can advise on the legal implications and actions that can be taken against the employee. The legal department can also coordinate with other groups, such as law enforcement, help desk, or board members, as needed. The other options are not the best choices to escalate the issue to first, as they may not have the authority or expertise to handle the situation properly.

The suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs indicates that a reverse shell was executed on the host, which connects to the remote IP address 10.1.2.3 on port 8080. The shell script option D uses the netstat command to check if there is any active connection to that IP address and port, and prints “Malicious activity” if there is, or “OK” otherwise. This is the most accurate way to confirm if the reverse shell is still active, as the other options may not detect the connection or may produce false positives.

ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Incident Response, page 339.Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet, Bash section.

Step 1: Reviewing the Vulnerability Remediation Timeframes

The remediation standards require servers to be patched based on their CVSS score:

CVSS > 9.0: Patch within 7 days

CVSS 7.9 - 9.0: Patch within 14 days

CVSS 5.0 - 7.9: Patch within 30 days

CVSS 0 - 5.0: Patch within 60 days

Step 2: Analyzing the Output Tab

From the Output tab:

Server 192.168.76.5 has a CVSS score of 9.2 for an unsupported Microsoft IIS version, indicating a critical vulnerability requiring a patch within 7 days.

Server 192.168.76.6 has a CVSS score of 7.4 for a missing secure attribute on HTTPS cookies, which falls in the 5.0 - 7.9 range, requiring a patch within 30 days.

Since the question asks for the server to be patched within 14 days, we need to focus on servers with CVSS 7.9 - 9.0:

None of the servers have a CVSS score that falls precisely in the 7.9 - 9.0 range.

However, 192.168.76.5, with a CVSS score of 9.2, has a vulnerability that necessitates a quick response and fits as it must be patched within the shortest timeframe (7 days, which includes 14 days).

The server that fits within a 14-day urgency, based on standard practices, would be 192.168.76.5.

Step 3: Reviewing the Environment Tab

The Environment Tab provides additional context for 192.168.76.5:

It’s in the dev environment, which is internal and not publicly accessible.

MFA is required, indicating security measures are already present.

Step 4: Selecting the Appropriate Technique and Mitigation

For 192.168.76.5, with the Microsoft IIS unsupported version:

Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release is the most suitable option, as upgrading IIS will resolve the unsupported software vulnerability by bringing it up-to-date with supported versions.

This technique addresses the root cause, which is the unpatched, outdated software.

Summary

Server to be patched within 14 calendar days: 192.168.76.5

Appropriate technique and mitigation: Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release

This approach ensures that the most critical vulnerabilities are addressed promptly, maintaining security compliance.

Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files. Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is completely eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerabilityand actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.

OpenVAS is an open-source tool that performs comprehensive vulnerability scanning and assessment on the network. It can generate reports and evidence of the scan results, which can be used for auditingpurposes. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 199; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 207.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The most effective and economical way to ensure the security of an automated information system is to design it with security in mind from the outset. This is often referred to as "security by design." Here’s a breakdown of each option and why option A is correct:

A. Originally designed to provide necessary security

Explanation: Systems designed with security from the beginning integrate secure practices and considerations during the development process. This approach mitigates the need for costly and complex retroactive security implementations, which are common in systems where security was an afterthought.

Cost Efficiency: Security implementations at the design stage can be embedded into the system architecture, reducing the costs associated with later modifications.

Effectiveness: Security-by-design approaches often result in robust systems that are more resilient to vulnerabilities because they address security concerns at each development phase.

B. Subjected to intense security testing

While rigorous security testing (such as penetration testing and vulnerability assessments) is essential, it is reactive. Security testing is more effective when applied to systems already designed with foundational security principles, ensuring that tests identify potential flaws in an inherently secure system.

C. Customized to meet specific security threats

Customizing security to meet specific threats addresses unique risks, but such a targeted approach may miss new or emerging threats not initially considered. It also risks neglecting fundamental security practices that apply universally, leading to potential vulnerabilities.

D. Optimized prior to the addition of security

Optimizing a system before adding security features may enhance performance but does not guarantee security. Security cannot be effectively added onto a system as an afterthought without incurring additional costs or creating potential weaknesses.

Geoblocking is the best mitigation technique for unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with, as it can prevent any potential attacks or data breaches from that country. Geoblocking is the practice of restricting access to websites or services based on geographic location, usually by blocking IP addresses associated with a certain country or region. Geoblocking can help reduce the overall attack surface and protect against malicious actors who may be trying to exploit vulnerabilities or steal information. The other options are not as effective as geoblocking, as they may not block all the possible sources of the scanning activity, or they may not address the root cause of the problem. Official References:

https://www.blumira.com/geoblocking/

https://www.avg.com/en/signal/geo-blocking

Group Policy Objects (GPO) are a feature in Windows environments that allow administrators to control settings and permissions across user accounts and computers within an organization. GPOs can restrict user permissions to prevent unauthorized installation or modification of applications, making them the best choice for centrally managing user capabilities on Windows systems. While HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention Systems), Registry, and DLP (Data Loss Prevention) have their own uses, GPOs provide a scalable and enterprise-level solution for application control as per CompTIA Security+ guidelines.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of cybercriminals’ adversarial behaviors based on cybercriminals’ known tactics, techniques and procedures (TTPs). It helps security teams model, detect, prevent and fight cybersecurity threats by simulating cyberattacks, creating security policies, controls and incident response plans, and sharing information with other security professionals. It is an open-source project that evolves with input from a global community of cybersecurity professionals1. References: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM

When prioritizing vulnerabilities, analysts consider theCVSS score, whether the system isinternet-facing, and ifsensitive datais involved. The primary goal is to mitigate the mostexploitableandimpactfulrisks first.

Let's break down the key components:

Attack Vector (AV): Whether the attack can be launched remotely (N = Network) or locally (L = Local).

Attack Complexity (AC): The difficulty of executing the attack (L = Low, H = High).

Privileges Required (PR): The level of access needed for exploitation (N = None, L = Low, H = High).

User Interaction (UI): Whether user interaction is required for the attack (N = No, R = Required).

Scope (S): Whether the attack affects other systems (C = Changed, U = Unchanged).

Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), Availability (A): The impact level (H = High, L = Low, N = None).

Evaluating Each System:

System 1 (CVSS: AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Internet-facing✅

No sensitive data❌

High confidentiality and availability impact✅

Moderate risk due to requiring low privileges

System 2 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Not internet-facing❌

No sensitive data❌

Lower priority since it’s local-only

System 3 (CVSS: AV:P/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:L)

Internet-facing✅

Contains sensitive data✅

But very low likelihood of exploit (requires physical access, high privileges, user interaction)

Lower priority due to high attack complexity

System 4 (CVSS: AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Internet-facing✅

No sensitive data❌

No privileges required for exploitation✅

High impact on confidentiality and availability✅

Most critical due to remote exploitability and system-wide scope

System 5 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:N)

Internet-facing✅

Contains sensitive data✅

But requires high privileges, high attack complexity, and user interaction

Lower priority than System 4

System 6 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Not internet-facing❌

No sensitive data❌

Same as System 2 (low priority due to being local-only)

Final Decision: Patch System 4 First

System 4 is themost criticalbecause:

It isinternet-facing(higher exposure).

It has ahigh CVSS score.

Itrequires no privileges(easy to exploit).

It hassystem-wide scope impact(can affect other systems).

Thus, it should bepatched firstto minimize security risks.

Quarantining the server is the best action to perform immediately, as it isolates the affected server from the rest of the network and prevents the ransomware from spreading to other systems or data. Quarantining the server also preserves the evidence of the ransomware attack, which can be useful for forensic analysis and law enforcement investigation. The other actions are not as urgent as quarantining the server, as they may not stop the ransomware infection, or they may destroy valuable evidence. Shutting down the server may not remove the ransomware, and it may trigger a data deletion mechanism by the ransomware. Reimaging the server may restore its functionality, but it will also erase any traces of the ransomware and make recovery of encrypted data impossible. Updating the OS to the latest version may fix some vulnerabilities, but it will not remove the ransomware or decrypt the data. Official References:

https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ransomware-guide

https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Ransomware_Executive_One-Pager_and_Technical_Document-FINAL.pdf

https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ive-been-hit-ransomware

Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications. IAM can help to ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting. Automation can help to simplify and streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example. Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles. Data enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method thatallows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related to what is described in the example.