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CSQA CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst Questions and Answers

Questions 4

COTS software is _______ if correct results will be produced under actual business conditions.

Options:

A.

Maintainable

B.

Cost Effective

C.

Secured

D.

Reliable

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Questions 5

Within an ISO process assessment, a capability level is said to be established 'only' and 'only if' all the process attributes are 'fully achieved'.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 6

A measure is a single attribute of a product or process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 7

Which of the following should be the selection criteria for COTS software regarding the integration of the software into an organization's business system work flow?

Options:

A.

It should not be a selection criteria

B.

It does not need full integration into an organization's business system work flow

C.

It should be able to be effectively integrated into an organization's business system work flow

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Questions 8

Which of the following is an important component of a complaint resolution process?

Options:

A.

Get on your opposing party's wavelength

B.

Get the facts

C.

Establish and initiate an action program

D.

Follow-up

E.

All of the above

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Questions 9

In the context of process maturity, 'check process continuum' moves from:

Options:

A.

Literal Controls to Intent Controls

B.

Management Controls to Employee Controls

C.

Intent Controls to Literal Controls

D.

Minimal to Heavy Controls

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Questions 10

When a computer operator verifies that the jobs to be run that day have been run is called:

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Disaster Recovery

C.

Quality Control

D.

Production Planning

E.

Quality Assurance

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Questions 11

Which of the following is NOT a major concerns during the operation and maintenance of a purchased application or software?

Options:

A.

Adequacy of Control

B.

Life of Contract

C.

Speed of Service

D.

Multi-Contractor Problem Resolution

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Questions 12

Which of the following models uses this four part cyclE. (part one - plan and organize; part two - acquire and implement; part three - deliver and support; part four - monitor)?

Options:

A.

COSO Model

B.

ISO Model

C.

Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award Model

D.

Enterprise Risk and Management Model

E.

CobiT Model

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Questions 13

Cause-and-Effect Diagrams are also referred to as a:

Options:

A.

Fishbone Diagram

B.

Ishikawa Diagram

C.

Why-why Diagram

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Questions 14

Which of the following is not included in 'Failure Cost' under 'Cost of Quality'?

Options:

A.

Rework Cost

B.

Complaints

C.

Inspection Cost

D.

Damage Claims

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Questions 15

There are two systems in every business application. The first is the system that ___________ business transactions, and the second is the system that _________ the processing of business transactions.

Options:

A.

Interfaces, Activities

B.

Combines, Activities

C.

Processes, Controls

D.

Controls, Processing

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Questions 16

Which type of monitoring focuses on the input or entrance criteria to a business process, for compliance to organizational policies?

Options:

A.

Preventive Monitoring

B.

Detective Monitoring

C.

Management Monitoring

D.

None of the above

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Questions 17

Which of the following is not one of the four major purposes of recording defects?

Options:

A.

To ensure the defect is corrected

B.

To determine who made the defect

C.

To report the status of the application

D.

To gather statistics used to develop defect expectations and future applications

E.

To improve the software development process

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Questions 18

Causes of variation that are typically "external" to the process are referred to as:

Options:

A.

Special Causes of Variation

B.

Common Causes of Variation

C.

Separate Causes of Variation

D.

None of the above

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Questions 19

Which of the following is NOT one of the six steps commonly used to build a security baseline?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline team

B.

Set baseline requirements and objectives

C.

Train baseline participants

D.

Acquire software to document the security baseline

E.

Analyze and report computer security status

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Questions 20

The definition for Reliability is:

Options:

A.

The amount of computing resources and code required by a program to perform a function.

B.

Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controlled.

C.

Effort required learning, operating, preparing input, and interpreting output of a program.

D.

Effort required locating and fixing an error in an operational program.

E.

None of the above

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Questions 21

Quality Policy is a:

Options:

A.

Statement of principles

B.

Mission of the company

C.

Vision of the company

D.

Statement of objectives

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Questions 22

Which of the following quality control practices would be considered a validation method?

Options:

A.

Code Inspections

B.

Desk Checking

C.

Design Reviews

D.

Error Guessing

E.

Unit Testing

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Questions 23

Boundary analysis techniques are used to create test cases that divide equivalence partitioned groups.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 24

The quality gap for a software product would be considered:

Options:

A.

The gap between the producer's view and the customer's view

B.

The gap between the software developer's view and the tester's view

C.

The gap between the software developer's view and the quality assurance group's view

D.

The gap between the quality assurance group's view and the quality control group's view

E.

The gap between the quality control group's view and internal audit's view

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Questions 25

The IT tool that teams can use to identify root causes of a problem is:

Options:

A.

Nominal Group Technique

B.

Cause and Effect Diagram

C.

Quality Function Deployment

D.

Force Field Analysis

E.

Affinity Diagram

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Questions 26

When auditors are engaged by the Board of Directors to audit an organization is an example of ____________.

Options:

A.

Supervisor Monitoring

B.

Peer Monitoring

C.

Ongoing Monitoring

D.

Independent Monitoring

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Questions 27

A brainstorming session should be used to develop a cause-and-effect diagram identifying all possible causes of _________________.

Options:

A.

Standard Deviations

B.

Measurements Variations

C.

Process Input Variations

D.

None of the above

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Questions 28

Philip Crosby's concept that "quality is free" means that:

Options:

A.

It is not necessary to budget for quality activities

B.

Quality activities provide a positive return on investment

C.

Quality activities come out of a corporate budget as opposed to an IT budget

D.

Individual work activities are not charged for quality activities

E.

Quality costs should be integrated into project costs

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Questions 29

There is a risk that products shipped will not be invoiced. If we were to assume that an average of two products will be shipped per day and not be invoiced and the average billing per invoice is $225.50, then the risk associated with not invoicing shipme

Options:

A.

$500

B.

$750

C.

$250

D.

$451

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Questions 30

____________ provides teams an opportunity to reach high-quality decisions with total team commitment.

Options:

A.

Consensus

B.

Compatibility

C.

Agreement

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Questions 31

Conducting an inspection of source code is:

Options:

A.

Quality Control

B.

Compilation

C.

Quality Assurance

D.

None of the above

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Questions 32

Though priority assigned to a defect is usually subjective, but are dependent on user input(s) or factor(s) such as:

Options:

A.

Importance of the defect

B.

Resources available to fix

C.

Risk

D.

A and B

E.

A, B, and C

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Questions 33

A model (like CMMI or ISO 9001) is an idealized concept to be accomplished. Organizations choose to adopt a model for a variety of reasons. Describe two reasons you believe an organization might adopt a model.

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Options:

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Questions 34

Approximately ten years ago, your IT department organized a process management committee. The committee determined what processes were needed, wrote those processes, incorporated them into the process inventory, and delivered them to the appropriate staff for implementation. After ten years, it is generally agreed that the process improvement program is not working. The IT staff does not follow many of the processes and management rarely enforces compliance to processes. You, as the Quality Assurance Manager, have been asked to develop a new process improvement program.

Indicate what you believe is the responsibility of the following groups in implementing an effective standards program.

1. IT Management

2. Process Management Committee

3. Users of the Processes

4. Quality Assurance Manager

5. Quality Control Function

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Options:

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Questions 35

While software may be developed by an outside organization, the responsibility for the software's quality cannot be contracted. Describe the quality professional's responsibility for the software developed by an outside organization.

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Options:

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Questions 36

What is meant by the term "best practice" and what process might be used to identify a best practice?

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Options:

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Questions 37

Dr. W. Edward Deming stated 14 Quality Principles for organizations to use in becoming a world-class organization. Listed below are four of Dr. Deming's Quality Principles.

Explain what you believe is required to implement each of these four quality principles.

1. Create consistency of purpose in the company.

2. Institute modern aids to training on the job.

3. Drive out fear.

4. Look carefully at work standards.

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Options:

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Questions 38

Describe the steps to create a histogram.

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Options:

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Questions 39

With the accelerating rate of technology change, each new technology must mature through five levels of technology maturity. As a Quality Manager describe the five-level framework, that you would suggest for maturing the technology processes.

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Questions 40

One of the means to describe a work task or activity is a workbench; a workbench is a graphical representation of a work task. As a Quality Assurance Manager, one of your work tasks is to provide quality training for the IT staff. Describe the components on the workbench that you would use to train a single individual in the quality principles and indicate the entrance and exit criteria as well as the activity that you would perform for each component of the workbench.

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Options:

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Questions 41

Quality Awareness Training is an on-going activity for all Quality Assurance staff. Assuming you have been asked to conduct a one-hour training session on quality, write your proposed agenda for the meeting below, giving both the topics to be covered and three points you would cover for each topic.

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Options:

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Questions 42

What is difference between structural and functional testing? State two advantages of both.

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Questions 43

It is said that the main purpose of a Defect Management Process should be to reduce defects. Explain what this means.

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Options:

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Questions 44

Businesses often make the mistake of developing both a business plan and a quality plan but failing to integrate them. Explain what it is meant to integrate the business plan and quality plan and how this improves the overall quality of the IT products and/or services.

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Options:

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Questions 45

Explain the relationship between Process Maturity and End User Satisfaction.

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Questions 46

As the Test Manager of your project team you are responsible for tracking the defects and delivering a tested system, which is 'fit for use'. Design a defect tracking process so that the defects are prioritized and fixed on time.

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Options:

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Questions 47

Compare and contrast the definitions of "quality” associated with Deming, Juran, and Crosby.

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Options:

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Questions 48

Describe what "Security Awareness Training" is and outline what steps you would include in your security awareness training program.

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Options:

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Questions 49

The development of the approach for process deployment is much harder than the actual deployment of the process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 50

Baselines should NOT be conducted:

Options:

A.

To determine where detailed investigation is required

B.

To identify problems / areas for quality improvement

C.

To evaluate individual performance

D.

To compare against external organizations

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Questions 51

An audit is:

Options:

A.

A process used to measure the current level of performance

B.

An independent appraisal activity

C.

An evaluation of a model

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Questions 52

Focusing on quality can increase productivity, reduce costs, and improve customer satisfaction.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 53

Process inventories can be developed by:

Options:

A.

Referencing existing manuals

B.

Conduct affinity group sessions

C.

Survey employees

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C above

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Questions 54

As per Deming's principle 'improve supervision', which one of the following should be discouraged?

Options:

A.

Supervisor calls the worker's attention to every defect

B.

Supervisor has more time to help people on the job

C.

Supervisor uses statistical methods

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Questions 55

Which of the following tools category has a mathematical focus and is related to data collection or interpretation?

Options:

A.

Management Tools

B.

Presentation Tools

C.

Statistical Tools

D.

None of the above

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Questions 56

Critical success factors for purchased software should be defined from the perspective of :

Options:

A.

The User

B.

Quality Assurance Personnel

C.

Computer Programmers

D.

Computer Operations Personnel

E.

IT Management

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Questions 57

When maturing the management process, movement will be from:

Options:

A.

Product Focus to Process Focus

B.

Process Focus to Product Focus

C.

Team Focus to Product Focus

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Questions 58

Identify the correct sequence of the 'Management Cycle'.

Options:

A.

Plan-Do-Act-Check

B.

Check-Act-Plan-Do

C.

Plan-Check-Do-Act

D.

Plan-Do-Check-Act

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Questions 59

Outsourced software can be developed by an organization within the country of use or developed in another country. Which of the following is a difference associated with software developed by an organization in another country?

Options:

A.

Missing requirements

B.

Customer standards may not be met

C.

Non-testable requirements

D.

Training and deployment may be difficult

E.

Cultural differences

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Questions 60

In terms of benefit compared to the control's cost, identify the correct sequence of controls in ascending order of cost.

Options:

A.

Preventive Control, Detective Control, Corrective Control

B.

Detective Control, Corrective Control, Preventive Control

C.

Preventive Control, Corrective Control, Detective Control

D.

Preventive Control, Detective Control, Corrective Control

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Questions 61

A help desk employee is allowed to hire a courier to deliver a report needed quickly by a user; but only up to a cost of $100. This means that the employee is being ___________.

Options:

A.

Mentored

B.

Empowered

C.

Trained

D.

Included

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Questions 62

Project objectives and goals expressed in quantitative terms is part of which planning activity?

Options:

A.

Business / Activity Planning

B.

Environment Planning

C.

Objective / Goal Planning

D.

Policies / Procedures Planning

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Questions 63

The optimal number of task force members is:

Options:

A.

1 - 3 members

B.

3 - 8 members

C.

8 - 10 members

D.

No limit

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Questions 64

The person who accepts personal responsibility for the success of quality management without being assigned the responsibility is called____________ .

Options:

A.

Quality Analyst

B.

Quality Manager

C.

Quality Champion

D.

Quality Controller

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Questions 65

Which of the following would be considered an important prerequisite to quality planning?

Options:

A.

Establishing a Quality Assurance Function

B.

Defining the IT Vision, Mission, and Goals

C.

Defining the Quality Assurance Mission and Goals

D.

Adopting the Six Sigma Concept

E.

Calculating Cost-of-Quality for the IT Organization

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Questions 66

A weakness in an information system, which is a point where the software systems are easiest to penetrate, is called a:

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Vulnerability

C.

Threat

D.

Control

E.

Exposure

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Questions 67

"Toyota production system" is also known as:

Options:

A.

COQ

B.

Six Sigma

C.

JIT

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 68

Tracking the status of each requirement throughout the development and test phases is called:

Options:

A.

Requirements Checking

B.

Requirements Verification

C.

In-Process Review

D.

Requirements Tracing

E.

Phase-End Review

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Questions 69

Customer surveys are:

Options:

A.

Objective Baselines

B.

Subjective Baselines

C.

Predictive Baselines

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Questions 70

When making a judgment while compliance monitoring, experience plays a larger role when:

Options:

A.

The standard is objective

B.

The standard is subjective

C.

Standards should not be a factor

D.

None of the above

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Questions 71

What should post-implementation audits NOT be used for?

Options:

A.

Determine if system objectives were met

B.

Determine if standards were followed

C.

Determine who is to blame for project problems

D.

Determine if IT quality objectives were achieved

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Questions 72

The core activity of Process Definition is not only defining the process but also:

Options:

A.

Performing walkthroughs of the process before publication

B.

Piloting the process

C.

Marketing the process

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Questions 73

A snapshot of an organization's security program at a certain time is a:

Options:

A.

Security Model

B.

Security Baseline

C.

Security Risk

D.

Security Test Procedure

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Questions 74

Which of the following processes is / are within the Defect Management level for maturing the Quality Control Processes?

Options:

A.

Defect Database

B.

Defect Reporting

C.

Defect Analysis

D.

All of the above

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Questions 75

The acronym CMM stands for:

Options:

A.

Continuous Maturity Model

B.

Computer Methods and Models

C.

Capability Maturity Model

D.

Change Management Model

E.

Continuous Maturity Methods

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Questions 76

Which of the following is a level for maturing the Quality Assurance Processes?

Options:

A.

Controlling

B.

Verification

C.

Business Requirements

D.

Relational Requirements

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Questions 77

Which of the following activities should occur before processes are defined to ensure that the most critical processes are defined first.

Options:

A.

Do

B.

Design

C.

Implementation

D.

Check

E.

None of the above

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Questions 78

COTS software is normally developed prior to an organization selecting that software for its use.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 79

Attribute of a product or service is called:

Options:

A.

Process

B.

Six Sigma

C.

JIT

D.

Quality

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Questions 80

A histogram is a bar graph.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 81

In the new quality management philosophy, the emphasis must be on:

Options:

A.

Defect Identification

B.

Quality Control

C.

Reducing Rework

D.

Catching Defects

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Questions 82

Prior to TQM, the distinction between “little-Q” and “big-Q” was given by:

Options:

A.

Philip Crosby

B.

Edwards Deming

C.

Motorola

D.

Joseph Juran

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Questions 83

Which of the following is NOT one of the five types of listening?

Options:

A.

Therapeutic Listening

B.

Critical Listening

C.

Structured Listening

D.

Comprehensive Listening

E.

Discriminative Listening

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Questions 84

Cooperation is required to improve quality and to implement quality management.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 85

-- Exhibit –

-- Exhibit --

The diagram is an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

Process Map Diagram

B.

Affinity Diagram

C.

Force Field Diagram

D.

Flowchart

E.

Cause-and-Effect Diagram

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Questions 86

When building a quality environment, one of top management's major responsibilities must be:

Options:

A.

Setting the ground rules of who can participate

B.

Developing the vision / values and mission statement for the company

C.

Determining who should sit on each of the quality boards

D.

Ensuring that the quality meetings do not last more than one hour

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Questions 87

The risk associated with replacing a team member would be characterized as:

Options:

A.

Time-Based

B.

Situational

C.

Interdependent

D.

Time-Based

E.

Value-Based

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Questions 88

-- Exhibit –

-- Exhibit --

In the Cost of Quality diagram shown, the COQ cost labeled "A" represents:

Options:

A.

Prevention Costs

B.

Failure Costs

C.

Appraisal Costs

D.

Cost of Production

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Questions 89

In a Waterfall Development Model, most risk management activity occurs close to milestones.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 90

Which of the following is considered a subjective measure?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Customer satisfaction

C.

Mean time to failure

D.

Hours to write a thousand lines of code

E.

Defect removal efficiency

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Questions 91

Procedures describe how methods, _________, techniques, and people are applied to perform a process?

Options:

A.

Tools

B.

Applications

C.

Software

D.

None of the above

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Questions 92

Which of the following is / are level(s) for maturing the Deliverables Processes?

Options:

A.

Constraint Requirements

B.

Business Requirements

C.

Relational Requirements

D.

All of the above

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Questions 93

Which of the following management philosophies would be associated with a quality management philosophy as opposed to the traditional management philosophy?

Options:

A.

Competition

B.

Focus on Detection

C.

Teamwork

D.

Controlling

E.

Fire Fighting

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Questions 94

After establishing the team for conducting security baseline, the first step should be to:

Options:

A.

Set up the process

B.

Set the measures

C.

Set the requirements and goals

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Questions 95

Which of the following is the correct definition of productivity?

Options:

A.

The ratio of output of a process to input

B.

The work effort that produces a product

C.

The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met

D.

The length of time to produce a product

E.

The ratio of input of a process to output

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Exam Code: CSQA
Exam Name: CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst
Last Update: Nov 21, 2024
Questions: 471
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