CV0-003 CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Renewing the expired certificate is what would most likely resolve the issue of users receiving a message indicating the connection is not secure when landing on a website that is hosted on a cloud platform and accessed through https://www.comptiasite.com. A certificate is a digital document that contains information such as identity, public key, expiration date, etc., that can be used to prove one’s identity and establish secure communication over a network. A certificate can expire when it reaches its validity period and needs to be renewed or replaced. An expired certificate can cause users to receive a message indicating the connection is not secure by indicating that the website’s identity or security cannot be verified or trusted. Renewing the expired certificate can resolve the issue by extending its validity period and restoring its identity or security verification or trust.

The most likely cause of one machine being unable to handle requests after deploying a new three-host cluster with identical resource allocations is that it has an overwhelmed vCPU (virtual CPU). An overwhelmed vCPU means that there is more demand for CPU resources than what is available on the host or VM. This could result in poor performance, high latency, or errors for the applications or processes that run on that machine. The systems administrator should monitor the CPU utilization and load on each machine and adjust them accordingly to balance the workload. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot capacity issues within a cloud environment.

According to the CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide1, autoscaling is “the ability to automatically increase or decrease the number of resources allocated to a cloud service based on the current demand”. This means that autoscaling can help a cloud environment adjust to changes in traffic and workload, such as the ones caused by the new marketing promotions.

Ballooning, on the other hand, is “a technique used by hypervisors to reclaim unused memory from a virtual machine and allocate it to another virtual machine that needs more memory”. This means that ballooning can help optimize the memory usage of a cloud environment, but it does not affect the number of resources allocated to a cloud service.

A firewall is “a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules”. This means that a firewall can help protect a cloud environment from unauthorized access and malicious attacks, but it does not affect the number of resources allocated to a cloud service.

Switches are “devices that connect multiple devices on a network and forward data packets between them”. This means that switches can help improve the network performance and connectivity of a cloud environment, but they do not affect the number of resources allocated to a cloud service.

Based on this information, I think the best answer to your question is D. Autoscaling. Autoscaling can help the company accommodate the new traffic by automatically increasing or decreasing the number of resources allocated to their web-application service based on the current demand. This can also help reduce costs and improve performance and availability.

I hope this helps you understand the concept of autoscaling better. If you want to learn more about CompTIA Cloud+, you can check out some of these resources:

• CompTIA Cloud+ : Cloud High Availability & Scaling: A video course that covers the topics of high availability and scaling in cloud environments, including autoscaling, horizontal scaling, vertical scaling and cloud bursting.
• Cloud+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: The official website of CompTIA Cloud+, where you can find exam details, preparation materials, renewal information and more.

IPAM (IP Address Management) is what the administrator will most likely use to select an address for the new VM that is about to be deployed to a cloud environment. IPAM is a tool or service that allows customers to plan, track, and manage the IP addresses and DNS names of their cloud resources or systems. IPAM can help to select an address for the new VM by providing information such as available IP addresses, IP address ranges, subnets, domains, etc., as well as ensuring that the address is unique and valid.

SNMPv3 is the protocol that the administrator should configure to address the concern about confidentiality for network management. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a standard protocol that allows network devices and systems to exchange information and perform management tasks. SNMPv3 is the latest version of SNMP that provides security enhancements, such as authentication, encryption, and access control, to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of network data.

Thin provisioning is the technique that ensures disk space is not allocated to the VM until it is needed. Thin provisioning is a storage allocation method that assigns disk space to a VM on demand, rather than in advance. Thin provisioning can improve storage utilization and efficiency by avoiding overprovisioning and wasting disk space. Thin provisioning can also allow for more flexibility and scalability of storage resources.

The best option to implement a new three-host cluster with a limited budget for testing purposes is to use three public cloud hosts with six cores, 80GB of RAM, 180GB of storage, and 150Mbps of bandwidth each. This option will provide enough resources to run all the applications without exceeding their estimated consumption, while also minimizing the cost and complexity of the cluster. The other options either provide insufficient or excessive resources, which could affect the performance or cost of the cluster. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.

Creating a VPN tunnel is the first action that the engineer should perform to prepare for server migrations and establish connectivity between clouds. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunnel is a secure and encrypted connection that allows data to be transferred between two networks or locations over the public internet. Creating a VPN tunnel can enable communication and interoperability between different cloud environments, as well as protect data from interception or modification during migration.

Modifying the configuration settings of the CMS (Content Management System) application to connect to the database in the current environment is what the cloud administrator should do to resolve the issue of web page displaying an error message stating the application is unavailable after deploying CMS application changes to the staging environment. A CMS is a software or platform that allows users to create, manage, and publish web content. A CMS may use a database to store and retrieve web content and information. A staging environment is a testing or pre-production environment that simulates the production environment and allows users to verify and validate changes or updates before deploying them to production. Modifying the configuration settings of the CMS application can help to resolve the issue by ensuring that the CMS application can access and communicate with the database in the current environment, rather than using the previous or default settings that may point to a different or non-existent database.

Option B is what minimally complies with the SLA (Service Level Agreement) requirements of allowing for no more than five hours of downtime annually for a new application that will be hosted by a public cloud provider. An SLA is a contract or agreement that defines the level of service or performance that a customer expects from a provider, such as availability, reliability, scalability, security, etc. An SLA can help to measure and monitor the quality and satisfaction of service or performance, as well as identify any penalties or rewards for meeting or failing to meet the SLA. Option B minimally complies with the SLA requirements by using services that have availability percentages that are equal to or higher than 99.95%, which translates to no more than five hours of downtime annually. Option B uses services such as:

• Compute: This is a service that provides computing resources such as servers, processors, memory, etc., to run applications or functions. Option B uses compute service with availability percentage of 99.95%, which means that it guarantees to be available for 99.95% of the time in a year, and allows for no more than five hours of downtime in a year.
• Storage: This is a service that provides storage resources such as disks, volumes, files, etc., to store data or information. Option B uses storage service with availability percentage of 99.99%, which means that it guarantees to be available for 99.99% of the time in a year, and allows for no more than one hour of downtime in a year.
• Database: This is a service that provides database resources such as tables, records, queries, etc., to store and retrieve data or information. Option B uses database service with availability percentage of 99.95%, which means that it guarantees to be available for 99.95% of the time in a year, and allows for no more than five hours of downtime in a year.

SR-IOV (Single Root Input/Output Virtualization) is what would best satisfy the requirements of low-latency, near-native performance of a physical NIC and data protection between VMs for multiple network I/O-intensive VMs. SR-IOV is a technology that allows a physical NIC to be partitioned into multiple virtual NICs that can be assigned to different VMs. SR-IOV can provide the following benefits:

• Low-latency: SR-IOV can reduce latency by bypassing the hypervisor and allowing direct communication between the VMs and the physical NIC, without any overhead or interference.
• Near-native performance: SR-IOV can provide near-native performance by allowing the VMs to use the full capacity and functionality of the physical NIC, without any emulation or translation.
• Data protection: SR-IOV can provide data protection by isolating and securing the network traffic between the VMs and the physical NIC, without any exposure or leakage.

HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is the tool that will provide the administrator with the most information about potential attacks on a cloud IaaS instance. HIDS is a software or agent that monitors and analyzes the activities and events on a host system or device, such as a cloud instance. HIDS can detect and alert on any malicious or anomalous behavior, such as unauthorized access, malware infection, configuration changes, etc., that may indicate an attack or compromise.

Hardening is the best option to help the cloud provider secure the environment and limit consumers’ activity on its IaaS platform. Hardening is a process of reducing the attack surface and vulnerabilities of a system or device by applying security configurations, patches, updates, policies, rules, etc. Hardening can prevent consumers from installing unauthorized or unsupported software on their cloud servers, such as hypervisors.

The first step in incident response is to contain the incident activities and attackers, which means preventing them from spreading to other systems or causing more damage. In this case, the security analyst should isolate the instance from the network into quarantine, which means cutting off its communication with other hosts and services. This will stop the cryptocurrency mining activity and prevent the attacker from accessing the instance remotely. Isolating the instance also preserves the evidence for further analysis and investigation.

Deploying two firewalls in a HA (High Availability) configuration is the best option to ensure all traffic passes through the firewall and meets the SLA (Service Level Agreement) of 99.999%. HA is a design principle that aims to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of a system or service. HA can be achieved by using redundancy, failover, load balancing, clustering, etc. Two firewalls in a HA configuration can provide redundancy and failover in case one firewall fails or becomes overloaded.

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is what would help the administrator schedule the frequency of the backup job for a critical business application that is running in a private cloud. RPO is a metric that measures how much data can be lost or how far back in time a recovery point can be without causing significant impact or damage. RPO can help to schedule the frequency of the backup job by determining how often backups should be performed to minimize data loss in case of a disruption or disaster.

Asking the user if the client device or access location has changed is what the help desk technician should do first to troubleshoot poor-quality remote VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) session. VDI is a technology that allows users to access virtual desktops hosted on remote servers over a network or internet connection. VDI can provide users with flexibility, mobility, and security, but it may also introduce quality issues depending on various factors, such as:

• The client device: This is the device that users use to access their virtual desktops, such as a laptop, tablet, smartphone, etc. The client device can affect VDI quality by determining how well it can support and display virtual desktop applications and services, as well as how fast it can process and send data over a network or internet connection.
• The access location: This is where users access their virtual desktops from, such as home, office, public place, etc. The access location can affect VDI quality by determining how stable and secure their network or internet connection is, as well as how much latency or interference they may experience.

Asking the user if these factors have changed can help to troubleshoot poor-quality remote VDI session by identifying any potential causes or sources of quality issues, as well as suggesting any possible solutions or alternatives.

Not enough upload bandwidth is what best explains the reason for slow connectivity to a web application that has been migrated to a cloud environment with a synchronous uplink speed of 100Mbps. Bandwidth is a measure of how much data can be transferred over a network or connection in a given time period. Upload bandwidth is a measure of how much data can be sent from one location to another over a network or connection in a given time period. Upload bandwidth can affect connectivity to a web application by determining how fast data can be uploaded from clients to servers or vice versa. Not enough upload bandwidth can cause slow connectivity to a web application by creating congestion or bottleneck in data transfer, which may result in delays or errors in web requests or responses.

The best method to maintain data confidentiality after discovering that the servers have been compromised and sensitive files have been exfiltrated is encryption. Encryption is a process that transforms data into an unreadable format using an algorithm and a key. Encryption can protect data at rest, in transit, or in use from unauthorized access, tampering, or leakage. The systems administrator should encrypt the sensitive files and their backups using strong encryption algorithms and keys, and also encrypt the network traffic using protocols such as SSL or IPSec. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

Storage live migration is the best restoration method to restore a VM from backup without changing the current VM’s operating state. Storage live migration is a process of moving or transferring storage resources or data from one location to another without affecting or interrupting the operation or performance of the VMs that use them. Storage live migration can help to restore a VM from backup by copying the backup data to a new storage location and switching the VM’s storage configuration to point to the new location, without requiring any downtime or reboot.

A site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN configuration that establishes a secure connection between two networks, such as a data center and a cloud environment. A site-to-site VPN allows all the devices in one network to communicate with all the devices in the other network, without requiring individual VPN clients or connections. A site-to-site VPN is suitable for a company that is migrating workloads from on premises to the cloud and would like to establish a connection between the entire data center and the cloud environment, as it can provide seamless and secure access to both networks.

The most important consideration when attempting to calculate the licensing costs for a piece of software that applies licensing fees on a socket-based model is the number of CPUs in the server. A socket-based model is a type of licensing model that charges based on the number of physical CPU sockets or slots on the server, regardless of how many cores or threads each CPU has. The systems administrator should count how many CPUs are installed on each server and multiply that by the licensing fee per socket to determine the total licensing cost for the software. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, analyze system performance using standard tools.

The best option to provide the desired service with the lowest cost and downtime after initial stress testing showed that a platform performed well with the specification of a single 32 vCPU node is to use three to six 8 vCPU nodes autoscaling group. An autoscaling group is a feature that allows dynamically adjusting the number of instances or nodes in a cluster based on the demand or load. This option will provide high availability, scalability, and performance for the service, while also optimizing the cost and resource utilization by adding or removing nodes as needed. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.4 Given a scenario, implement automation and orchestration to optimize cloud operations.

The most useful tool to prevent private corporate information from being emailed to external users is data loss prevention (DLP). DLP is a type of security solution that monitors and controls the flow of data in and out of a system or network. It can detect and prevent unauthorized access, transmission, or leakage of sensitive data, such as personal information, financial records, or intellectual property. DLP can also enforce encryption, masking, or deletion of sensitive data to protect its confidentiality. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

The correct answer is B. Vendor lock-in. Vendor lock-in is a situation where a customer becomes dependent on a certain cloud provider and cannot easily switch to another provider without significant costs or disruptions. This can happen when the customer uses features or services that are only available from that specific provider, or when the customer has a large amount of data stored with the provider that is difficult to migrate. According to the web search results, vendor lock-in is a common concern in cloud computing1234. A service level agreement, a memorandum of understanding, and encrypted data are not barriers to switching providers, as they do not create a dependency on a specific provider or make it difficult to move data. For more information on vendor lock-in and how to avoid it, you can refer to the Cloudflare website1 or the Seagate blog4.

One possible explanation for why two application servers have not generated any logs for a period of three days, while others continue to send logs normally, is that the application servers were migrated to the cloud as laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) instances. laaS is a cloud service model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems. When an application server is migrated to the cloud as an laaS instance, it may require some configuration changes to enable the syslog forwarding to the same destination as before. For example, the laaS instance may have a different IP address, hostname, firewall rules, or network settings than the original server. If these changes are not properly made, the laaS instance may not be able to communicate with the syslog solution and send logs as expected.

The most likely reason why users are not experiencing any performance benefit after upgrading the memory of their on-premises VMs is that the operating system has a memory limit that prevents it from using more than 8GB of RAM. This could be due to the operating system version, edition, or configuration. The systems administrator should check the operating system settings and requirements and adjust them accordingly to allow the VMs to use the full 16GB of RAM. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot capacity issues within a cloud environment.

As mentioned in the question, the security appliances are using syslog to forward the logs to a central log aggregation solution. According to the web search results, syslog is a protocol that runs over UDP port 514 by default, or TCP port 6514 for secure and reliable transport1. However, some implementations of syslog can also use TCP port 514 for non-secure transport2. Therefore, to allow the web servers to connect to the central log collector using syslog over TCP, the firewall rule should allow TCP 514 outbound from the web servers to the log collector.

Scalability is the ability of a system to handle increasing or decreasing demand by adding or removing resources accordingly. According to the web search results, scalability is one of the main benefits of using containers in a cloud environment, as containers are lightweight, portable, and independent units of software that can run on any compatible host . A containerized cluster is a group of hosts that run multiple containers and share resources and services. A containerized cluster can scale up or down easily by adding or removing hosts or containers as needed, without affecting the functionality or performance of the applications .

The best way to connect all the VPCs for the company that is planning its cloud architecture and wants to use a VPC for each of its three products per environment in two regions, totaling 18 VPCs, is to use a hub and spoke model. A hub and spoke model is a networking model that uses a central hub VPC that connects to multiple spoke VPCs that host the products or workloads. The hub VPC can provide common services and security policies for the spoke VPCs, such as network virtual appliances, DNS servers, firewalls, or VPN gateways. The spoke VPCs can communicate with each other through the hub VPC, using private IP addresses or peering connections. A hub and spoke model can simplify the management and scalability of the network, as well as reduce the costs and complexity of peering multiple VPCs directly. Reference: Hub-and-spoke network topology - Cloud Adoption Framework

The most likely causes of the issue are A. Disk I/O limits and C. CPU oversubscription. Disk I/O limits are the maximum amount of input/output operations per second (IOPS) that a disk can handle. CPU oversubscription is the ratio of virtual CPUs to physical CPUs in a host. Both of these factors can affect the performance of a VDI environment, especially during peak hours when many users log in and launch applications.

Disk I/O limits can cause slow boot times, application lags, and cursor freezes for VDI users12. To avoid this issue, it is recommended to use flash storage or SSDs for VDI workloads, as they have much higher IOPS than traditional hard disk drives31. It is also important to monitor the disk performance and adjust the disk size and configuration as needed1.

CPU oversubscription can also cause performance degradation for VDI users, as it can lead to CPU contention and increased latency42. To avoid this issue, it is recommended to limit the CPU oversubscription ratio to a reasonable level, such as 4:1 or lower42. It is also important to monitor the CPU utilization and balance the load across hosts as needed4.

The other options are less likely to cause the issue. Affinity rules are used to specify which virtual machines should run on which hosts or which virtual machines should not run on the same host. They are not related to the performance of VDI workloads. RAM usage can affect the performance of VDI workloads, but it is usually not a major factor during peak hours, as most users do not consume a lot of memory when they log in or launch applications. Insufficient GPU resources can affect the performance of VDI workloads that require high graphics processing, such as video streaming or 3D rendering, but they are not relevant for most VDI users. License issues can affect the availability of VDI workloads, but they are not related to the performance of VDI workloads.

The best options to implement for a public cloud solution for an existing application using lift and shift that requires scalability and external access are a load balancer and a VPN (virtual private network). A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, capacity, or performance. A load balancer can improve scalability by balancing the workload and optimizing resource utilization. A VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet. A VPN can provide external access by allowing remote users or sites to connect to the cloud resources as if they were on the same private network. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.4 Given a scenario, execute a provided deployment plan.

A canary deployment is a software deployment technique where a new feature or version is released to a small subset of users in production prior to releasing it to a larger subset or all the users. It is also sometimes termed a phased rollout or incremental release1. A canary deployment allows the developers to test the new service in a real environment and get feedback from the users before making it available to everyone. It also reduces the risk of failures and enables easy rollbacks if something goes wrong. A canary deployment is different from a blue-green deployment, where two identical environments are used to switch between the old and new versions of the service. A big bang deployment is where the new service is released to all the users at once, without any testing or gradual rollout. A rolling deployment is where the new service is installed in batches or stages, replacing the old service gradually until all the users are on the new version.

One possible cause for the incidents in which attackers are able to access sensitive data from a corporate application’s database is that the account credentials used by the web application to access the database are compromised or leaked. The log confirms that the attackers are using the WebApp user account to assume the DBA role and execute the GetData API call, which could allow them to retrieve any data from the database. The account credentials could be compromised or leaked due to various reasons, such as weak passwords, phishing attacks, code injection, or insecure storage or transmission. Therefore, one action that will most likely prevent future compromises is to rotate the account credentials, which means changing them periodically or after every incident occurrence. Rotating the account credentials can reduce the risk of unauthorized access by invalidating the old or stolen credentials and enforcing strong and unique passwords for each account.

The best technology to provide speed acceleration and a secure connection for a public-facing API that is hosted on a cloud provider is SSL (Secure Sockets Layer). SSL is a protocol that encrypts and authenticates the data between a client and a server over an HTTP connection. It also compresses the data to reduce its size and improve its transmission speed. SSL can enhance the security and performance of an API by preventing unauthorized access, tampering, or interception of the data. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, implement appropriate network security controls for a cloud environment.

User quotas are a feature that allows the administrator to limit the amount of storage space that a user or a group of users can consume on a file server. User quotas can help to control storage usage by preventing users from storing excessive or unnecessary files, as well as by enforcing fair and consistent storage policies across the organization. User quotas can also help to monitor and report on the storage consumption and trends of the users, and alert the administrator or the users when they are approaching or exceeding their quota limits.

According to the CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide1, scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the size or capacity of a cloud service”. There are two main types of scaling: horizontal and vertical.

Horizontal scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the number of instances or nodes of a cloud service”. This means that horizontal scaling can add or remove servers or virtual machines to a cloud service, depending on the workload demand. Horizontal scaling can improve availability, reliability, and performance, but it can also increase complexity and cost.

Vertical scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the resources allocated to an instance or node of a cloud service”. This means that vertical scaling can add or remove CPU, memory, disk, or network resources to a server or virtual machine, depending on the workload demand. Vertical scaling can improve performance and efficiency, but it can also have limitations and risks.

Cloud bursting is “a technique that allows a private cloud to use public cloud resources when it reaches its capacity limit”. This means that cloud bursting can extend the private cloud to the public cloud when there is a peak in demand that exceeds the private cloud resources. Cloud bursting can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost savings, but it can also introduce challenges such as security, compatibility, and latency.

Autoscaling is “the ability to automatically increase or decrease the number of resources allocated to a cloud service based on the current demand”. This means that autoscaling can adjust the size or capacity of a cloud service without human intervention, using predefined rules or policies. Autoscaling can optimize performance, availability, and cost, but it can also require careful monitoring and configuration.

Based on this information, I think the best answer to your question is C. Cloud bursting. Cloud bursting can help the company utilize its private cloud for the new application and also access public cloud resources when the private cloud resources can only meet 75% of the application’s requirements. This way, the company can accommodate 100% of the application’s requirements without having to purchase extra computing resources for their private cloud.

I hope this helps you understand the concept of cloud bursting better. If you want to learn more about CompTIA Cloud+, you can check out some of these resources:

• CompTIA Cloud+ : Cloud High Availability & Scaling: A video course that covers the topics of high availability and scaling in cloud environments, including autoscaling, horizontal scaling, vertical scaling and cloud bursting.
• Cloud+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: The official website of CompTIA Cloud+, where you can find exam details, preparation materials, renewal information and more.

Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of provisioning and managing cloud resources using code or scripts, rather than manual processes or GUI tools. This allows for automation, consistency, scalability, and version control of the infrastructure layer. This would be the best option to deploy a solution to automate new application releases that come from the development team without modifying any configurations in the application code. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.4 Given a scenario, implement automation and orchestration to optimize cloud operations.

The most likely causes of the issue where the new asynchronous workflow fails to create 50 VMs at once in the public cloud are insufficient storage and expired API token. Insufficient storage means that there is not enough disk space available in the public cloud to accommodate all the VMs that are being created simultaneously. This could result in errors or failures during the provisioning process. Expired API token means that the authentication credential that is used by the workflow to communicate with the public cloud service has expired or become invalid. This could result in errors or failures during the API calls or requests. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.5 Given a scenario, troubleshoot automation/orchestration issues.

The most useful tool in maintaining confidentiality for a new application stack that will store sensitive information and be accessible from the internet is data loss prevention (DLP). DLP is a type of security solution that monitors and controls the flow of data in and out of a system or network. It can detect and prevent unauthorized access, transmission, or leakage of sensitive data, such as personal information, financial records, or intellectual property. DLP can also enforce encryption, masking, or deletion of sensitive data to protect its confidentiality. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

Roles and responsibilities are definitions or descriptions of what each team member or stakeholder is expected to do or perform in a project or process. Roles and responsibilities can help clarify the scope, authority, and accountability of each team member or stakeholder and avoid any confusion or duplication of work. The security team most likely forgot to implement roles and responsibilities when investigating a data breach, as they are all trying to do the same tasks but are interfering with each other’s work. Implementing roles and responsibilities can help improve efficiency and effectiveness, as it can ensure that each team member or stakeholder knows what tasks they need to do and how they need to coordinate with others. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

The best way to resolve the issue of an unusual increase in the read operations that is causing a heavy load in the system that is using a relational database and is running in a VM is to use a cache system to store reading operations. A cache system is a type of storage system that temporarily stores frequently accessed or recently used data in memory for faster retrieval. A cache system can reduce the load on the database system by serving the read requests from the cache instead of querying the database every time. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot capacity issues within a cloud environment.

Tags are metadata or labels that can be assigned to cloud resources or services to identify and organize them based on various criteria, such as name, purpose, owner, or cost center. Tags can help track the costs for each business unit or department that uses cloud services, as they can enable granular and accurate billing and reporting based on the tags. Misconfigured tags can cause the issue of inaccurate cost tracking for different businesses, as they can result in incorrect or missing billing information or reports. The issue can be resolved by configuring the tags properly to reflect the correct business unit or department for each cloud resource or service. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Disk I/O limits are restrictions or controls that limit the amount of disk input/output operations per second (IOPS) that a VM can perform on a storage device or system. CPU oversubscription is a situation where more CPU resources are allocated to VMs than are physically available on the host or server. Disk I/O limits and CPU oversubscription are most likely to cause VDI performance being very slow at the start of the workday, but fine during the rest of the day, as they can create bottlenecks or contention for disk and CPU resources when multiple users log in or launch their VDI sessions at the same time, resulting in increased latency or reduced throughput for VDI operations. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

Vulnerability testing is a type of testing that identifies and evaluates the weaknesses or flaws in a system or application that could be exploited by attackers. Vulnerability testing can help check the infrastructure and application for security issues regularly, as it can reveal the potential risks and exposures that may compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or application. Vulnerability testing can also help remediate or mitigate the vulnerabilities by providing recommendations or solutions to fix or reduce them. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 19, section 4.1

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol that enables monitoring and managing network devices and components in an IP network. SNMP can help monitor all computer, storage, and network components of a private cloud environment, as it can collect and report information about their status, performance, configuration, and events. SNMP can also help troubleshoot and optimize the private cloud environment, as it can detect and alert any issues or anomalies related to the network devices and components. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

RAID 1 is a type of RAID level that creates an exact copy or mirror of data on two or more disks. RAID 1 can provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as it can survive the failure of one disk without losing any data. RAID 1 can also improve read performance, as it can access data from multiple disks simultaneously. The administrator should configure RAID 1 to set up mirroring on a storage array. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

A web application firewall (WAF) is a type of network security device or software that monitors and filters HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet. A WAF can help mitigate the risk of exploitation of an SQL injection vulnerability reported on a web application while it is corrected by the development team, as it can detect and block any malicious requests or queries that attempt to inject SQL commands into the web application’s database. A WAF can also help protect the web application from other common web-based attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), remote file inclusion (RFI), or denial-of-service (DoS). References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Replication is a process of copying or synchronizing data from one location to another to ensure consistency and availability. Replication can help set up a disaster recovery (DR) site for a cloud environment, as it can enable data backup and recovery in case of a failure or outage in the primary site. Replication can also improve performance and reliability, as it can reduce latency and load by distributing data across multiple sites. Replication should be configured between the cloud environment and the DR site to ensure data protection and continuity. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

A virtual application delivery controller (vADC) is a type of network device or software that provides load balancing, security, and optimization for web applications or services. Deploying a vADC appliance can help prevent an outage of the organization’s web server infrastructure due to a spike in network traffic, as it can distribute the traffic across multiple web servers and improve the performance and availability of web applications or services. Deploying a vADC appliance can also provide mitigation methods such as DDoS protection, SSL offloading, and caching to enhance the security and efficiency of web traffic delivery. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Network latency is the first thing that the administrator should check while troubleshooting slowness when saving files after a file server VM was moved to another region in a globally distributed cloud environment. Network latency is a measure of how long it takes for data to travel from one point to another over a network or connection. Network latency can affect performance and user experience of cloud applications or services by determining how fast data can be transferred or processed between clients and servers or vice versa. Network latency can vary depending on various factors, such as distance, bandwidth, congestion, interference, etc. Network latency can increase when a file server VM is moved to another region in a globally distributed cloud environment, as it may increase the distance and decrease the bandwidth between clients and servers, which may result in delays or errors in data transfer or processing.

TCP port 3389 is the default port used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to connect to a remote system or application over a network. Opening TCP port 3389 on the firewall or network device will most likely solve the issue of users experiencing a connection timeout error when trying to use RDP to connect to an application, as it will allow RDP traffic to pass through. If TCP port 3389 is closed or blocked, RDP traffic will be denied or dropped, resulting in a connection timeout error. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Vulnerability testing is a type of security testing that identifies and evaluates the weaknesses or flaws in a system or service that could be exploited by attackers. Vulnerability testing can help meet security compliance requirements when deploying a new cloud solution, as it can reveal any potential security risks or gaps in the cloud environment and provide recommendations for remediation or mitigation. Vulnerability testing can also help improve security posture and performance, as it can prevent or reduce the impact of cyberattacks, data breaches, or service disruptions. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Replacing the equipment is the best action to take when a piece of networking equipment is about to reach its end of support. End of support means that the vendor or manufacturer will no longer provide technical assistance, updates, patches, or fixes for the equipment, which can affect its functionality, performance, security, and compatibility. Replacing the equipment with a newer model that has ongoing support can prevent any issues or risks associated with using outdated equipment. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 18, section 3.5

Hyperconverged storage is a type of storage architecture that combines compute, storage, and network resources into a single system or appliance. Hyperconverged storage uses software-defined storage (SDS) to pool and share the local storage of each node in the cluster, creating a distributed storage system that can be accessed by any node or virtual machine in the cluster. Hyperconverged storage can provide high performance, scalability, and efficiency for virtualized environments. The scenario of building a new virtualization cluster with five virtual hosts that share their flash and spinning disks among all the virtual hosts is an example of hyperconverged storage. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], page 9, section 1.4

API provider rate limiting is a restriction on the number of requests that can be made to a web service or application programming interface (API) within a certain time period. API provider rate limiting can cause a failure to access a public cloud API deployment, as it can reject or block any requests that exceed the limit. API provider rate limiting can be used by cloud providers to control the usage and traffic of their customers and prevent overloading or abuse of their resources. API provider rate limiting is the most likely cause for the developer being unable to access a public cloud API deployment that was working ten minutes prior. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

A vendor’s conversion tool is a type of software or utility that automates and simplifies the process of converting physical servers to virtual machines by capturing the configuration and data of the physical servers and creating virtual disks and files for the virtual machines. Using the vendor’s conversion tool can be the most efficient conversion method for a systems administrator to use to convert ten physical servers to virtual, as it can save time and effort by avoiding manual steps or errors involved in rebuilding, cloning, or restoring the physical servers to virtual machines. Using the vendor’s conversion tool can also ensure compatibility and consistency, as it can match the hardware and software requirements and settings of the physical servers to the virtual machines. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

Checking in and committing are actions that save and update the changes made to a file or code in a version control system or repository. Checking in and committing can help track and synchronize the changes made by different users or developers working on the same file or code. The deployment script changes made by the first administrator were not checked in and committed is the most likely reason for the issue of the application load balancer being missing from the new deployment after a second administrator made some changes and ran the script. If the first administrator did not check in and commit the changes made to add an application load balancer to the script, then those changes would not be reflected or available in the latest version of the script used by the second administrator. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Classification is a process of assigning labels or categories to data based on its sensitivity, value, or risk level. Classification can help implement data loss prevention (DLP) policies by identifying which data needs to be protected and how to protect it according to its classification level. Classification can also help comply with mandatory regulations by ensuring that data is handled and stored appropriately based on its legal or contractual requirements. Classification is essential for DLP to efficiently prevent the exposure of sensitive data in a cloud environment. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Hub and spoke is a type of network topology that consists of a central node or device (hub) that connects to multiple peripheral nodes or devices (spokes). Hub and spoke can help reduce long-term maintenance for managing two cloud environments from different MSPs, as it can simplify and centralize the network configuration and management by using the hub as a single point of contact and control for the spokes. Hub and spoke can also improve network performance and security, as it can reduce latency, bandwidth consumption, and network congestion by routing traffic through the hub. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) protection is a type of security solution that detects and mitigates DDoS attacks that aim to overwhelm or disrupt a system or service by sending large volumes of traffic from multiple sources. DDoS protection can prevent such disruptive traffic from reaching the web servers by filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic and allowing only legitimate traffic to pass through. DDoS protection can also help maintain the availability and functionality of web services and applications during a DDoS attack. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

If a whole rack of servers was inaccessible during a power outage, even though the servers did not lose power, it is likely that the switch that connects them to the network lost power. Without network connectivity, the servers would not be able to communicate with other devices or services. The administrator should investigate the switch power source and ensure it has a backup power supply or UPS.

RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. RAID 6 can provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as it can survive the failure of up to two disks without losing any data. RAID 6 can also support large data sets and high-capacity disks, as it can offer more usable space and better performance than other RAID levels with similar features, such as RAID 5 or RAID 10. RAID 6 is the best RAID level for a systems administrator to use when deploying a new storage array for backups that provides 1PB of raw disk space and uses 14TB nearline SAS drives and must tolerate at least two failed drives in a single RAID set. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

An API request limit is a restriction on the number of requests that can be made to a web service or application programming interface (API) within a certain time period. API request limits are often used by SaaS-based services to control the usage and traffic of their customers and prevent overloading or abuse of their resources. An API request limit can cause a failure to send all the emails if the marketing team exceeds the number of requests allowed by the SaaS-based service in a week. The service may reject or block any requests that go beyond the limit, resulting in fewer emails being sent than expected. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

The network is the set of devices, connections, protocols, and configurations that enable communication and data transfer between different systems and applications. The network can affect the performance of storage throughput by influencing factors such as bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss, and congestion. Poor network performance can result in low storage throughput in both IOPS and MBps, as it can limit the amount and speed of data that can be sent or received by the storage devices. Verifying the network should be the next step for troubleshooting the issue of slow storage throughput on a few VMs in a private IaaS cloud, as it can help identify and resolve any network-related problems that may be causing the issue. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 17, section 3.4

Regions are geographical locations or areas where cloud service providers have data centers or facilities that host their cloud resources or services. Regions can help reduce latency for all users when deploying a globally accessed application to the cloud, as they can enable faster and closer access to the cloud resources or services based on the user’s physical location. Regions can also improve performance and availability, as they can provide redundancy and load balancing by distributing the workload across multiple locations. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

A /26 subnet is a subnet that has a network prefix of 26 bits and a host prefix of 6 bits. A /26 subnet can support up to 64 hosts (62 usable hosts) and has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. Creating two /26 subnets in different regions can best meet the business requirements for deploying a high availability, horizontally auto-scaling solution that has a peak capacity of 60 nodes per region and five reserved network IP addresses per subnet. Creating two /26 subnets can provide enough host addresses for the peak capacity and the reserved addresses, as well as allow for some growth or redundancy. Creating the subnets in different regions can provide high availability and horizontal auto-scaling, as it can distribute the workload across multiple locations and scale out or in based on demand. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

RAID 50 is a type of RAID level that combines RAID 5 and RAID 0 to create a nested RAID configuration. RAID 50 consists of two or more RAID 5 arrays that are striped together using RAID 0. RAID 50 can provide redundancy, fault tolerance, and high performance for large data sets. RAID 50 can also maximize storage, as it has a higher usable capacity than other RAID levels with similar features, such as RAID 6 or RAID 10. The administrator should choose RAID 50 to configure a new server that will host files for users and replicate to an identical server, as it can meet the needs of redundancy and storage maximization. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

Vendor lock-in is a situation where a customer becomes dependent on a specific vendor for products or services and faces high switching costs or barriers when trying to change vendors. Vendor lock-in is most likely to be a concern for a company that developed a product using a cloud provider’s PaaS platform and many of the platform-based components within the application environment when utilizing a multicloud strategy or migrating to another cloud provider, as it can limit the flexibility, scalability, and portability of the product and increase the complexity, risk, and cost of moving or integrating with other cloud platforms or providers. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, section 1.2

Single sign-on (SSO) is a type of authentication mechanism that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with a single login credential. SSO can help users have a seamless experience regardless of the collaboration solution being used, as it can eliminate the need for multiple logins and passwords for different systems or applications. SSO can also improve user convenience, productivity, and security, as it can simplify the login process, reduce login errors, and enhance password management. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

A virtual extensible local area network (VXLAN) is a type of network virtualization technology that creates logical networks or segments that span across multiple physical networks or locations. Moving the web and database servers onto the same VXLAN can help resolve the network throughput issues following a deployment, as it can reduce the network traffic between the database and the web servers by using a common virtual network identifier (VNI) and encapsulating the traffic within UDP packets. Moving the web and database servers onto the same VXLAN can also improve performance and security, as it can provide higher scalability, isolation, and encryption for the network traffic. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Scalability is the ability of a system or service to handle increased workload or demand by adding or removing resources or capacity as needed. Scalability is relevant to capacity planning in a SaaS environment, as it can affect the performance, availability, and cost of the SaaS service. Scalability can help optimize the capacity planning process by ensuring that the SaaS service has enough resources or capacity to meet the current and future needs of the customers without wasting or underutilizing resources or capacity. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12, section 2.2

An access control list (ACL) is a set of rules that defines which traffic is allowed or denied between different network segments or devices. An ACL can be used to filter traffic based on various criteria, such as source and destination addresses, ports, protocols, and applications. Configuring an ACL between the VLANs of the finance and marketing departments is the most suitable method to meet the requirements of allowing HTTPS/HTTP and disabling FTP and SMB traffic. An ACL can specify which ports and protocols are permitted or blocked between the VLANs, such as allowing port 80 (HTTP) and port 443 (HTTPS), and denying port 21 (FTP) and port 445 (SMB). References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], page 15, section 2.8

An application programming interface (API) is a set of rules or protocols that defines how different systems or applications can communicate or interact with each other. An API version is a specific iteration or release of an API that may have different features or functionalities than previous or subsequent versions. API version incompatibility is the most likely cause of the script failure when switching hosting companies and using the same script that was previously used to deploy VMs in the new cloud, as it can result in errors or failures when trying to execute commands or functions that are not supported or recognized by the new cloud provider’s API version. The issue can be resolved by updating or modifying the script to match the new cloud provider’s API version. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Updating the web browser to the latest version is the first action that the user should do when experiencing a connection timeout error after the administrator configured a redirect from HTTP to HTTPS on the web server. Updating the web browser can ensure that it supports the latest security protocols and standards, such as TLS 1.2 or 1.3, which are required for HTTPS connections. If the web browser is outdated or incompatible with the security protocols or standards used by the web server, it may fail to establish a secure connection and result in a connection timeout error. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

A /23 subnet mask has 9 bits for the host portion, which allows up to 512 IP addresses for the desktops. A /22 subnet mask has 10 bits for the host portion, which allows up to 1024 IP addresses, but this is more than the minimum required. A /24 subnet mask has 8 bits for the host portion, which allows up to 256 IP addresses, but this is not enough for the desktops. A /25 subnet mask has 7 bits for the host portion, which allows up to 128 IP addresses, but this is also not enough for the desktops. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0: Cloud Concepts, Objective 1.2: Given a scenario, analyze and compare the characteristics of various cloud service models (SaaS, IaaS, PaaS). Subnet Mask Cheat Sheet - aelius.com

The correct answer is C. Legal hold.

A legal hold is a process that organizations use to preserve relevant electronic information when they anticipate litigation or have an active e-discovery request. A legal hold requires that certain email messages be retained and unaltered until they are no longer required for court use. Legal hold requirements apply both to the content of messages as well as the metadata which can provide proof of delivery and other critical non-repudiation information12.

Email archiving is a process that organizations use to store email messages for long-term retention, compliance, and backup purposes. Email archiving does not necessarily imply that the email messages are preserved for legal purposes, although some email archiving solutions may offer legal hold capabilities1.

Version control is a process that software developers use to manage changes to source code and other files in a project. Version control allows developers to track, compare, and revert changes, as well as collaborate with other developers. Version control does not apply to email messages or legal hold.

File integrity monitoring is a process that security professionals use to detect unauthorized or malicious changes to files and directories on a system. File integrity monitoring helps to protect the system from malware, data breaches, and configuration errors. File integrity monitoring does not apply to email messages or legal hold.

The best option to perform the database migration is to create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new instance. This option can help meet the restricted SLA and avoid offline time for the database. Creating a replica database can help copy the data from the source to the destination without interrupting the database operations. Synchronizing the data can help ensure that the replica database is updated with any changes that occur in the source database during the migration process. Switching to the new instance can help complete the migration and activate the new database in the cloud. This option can also help avoid the network bandwidth limitation and the large size of the data. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 7, Objective 7.1: Given a scenario, migrate applications and data to the cloud.

Deduplication is a process by which redundant data is eliminated, thus reducing the size of the dataset. Deduplication with cloud storage reduces the storage requirements, along with the amount of data to be transferred over the network, resulting in faster and more efficient data protection operations1. Deduplication can help to shrink the data footprint, lower the storage costs, and improve the performance of backup and recovery processes2. Deduplication can be applied at different levels, such as file-level, block-level, or byte-level, depending on the granularity and efficiency of the technique3. Deduplication can also be performed at different locations, such as source, target, or cloud, depending on the architecture and design of the storage system3. By implementing deduplication, a cloud administrator can achieve significant data savings and optimize the cloud storage costs4. References: Data deduplication techniques for efficient cloud storage management: a systematic review; How Data Deduplication Reduces Cloud Data Costs; How Data Deduplication Can Save Cloud Storage Costs?; Data Deduplication Overview; What is Data Deduplication and How Can it Help Reduce Cloud Costs?.

One possible answer is:

A. Use cloud-native serverless services.

Cloud-native serverless services are a type of cloud computing that allows developers to build and run applications without having to manage servers, infrastructure, or scaling. Cloud-native serverless services can help the organization meet the requirements listed above, as they can:

• Minimize organizational infrastructure and comply with security standards. Cloud-native serverless services are fully managed by the cloud provider, which means the organization does not have to provision, configure, or maintain any servers or infrastructure. The cloud provider also handles the security aspects of the serverless environment, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, patching, and monitoring. The organization can focus on developing the application logic and rely on the cloud provider to meet the security standards12.
• Minimize organizational compliance efforts. Cloud-native serverless services can also help the organization reduce the compliance burden, as they can leverage the compliance certifications and attestations of the cloud provider. The cloud provider can ensure that the serverless environment complies with various regulations and standards, such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, GDPR, ISO 27001, etc. The organization can inherit the compliance posture of the cloud provider and avoid the hassle of auditing and validating their own infrastructure12.
• Focus on application development and increase speed to market. Cloud-native serverless services can also enable the organization to accelerate the development and delivery of their online product, as they can write code using their preferred programming languages and frameworks, and deploy it quickly and easily to the serverless environment. The serverless environment can automatically scale up or down based on the demand, ensuring high availability and performance. The organization can also integrate serverless services with other cloud services, such as databases, storage, analytics, etc., to create a full-stack application12.

The upgrade method that is being implemented by the systems administrator is rolling. A rolling upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a subset of nodes or instances at a time, while the rest of the nodes or instances continue to run the old version. This way, the upgrade can be performed gradually and incrementally, without causing downtime or disruption to the entire system. A rolling upgrade can also help to monitor and test the new version for any issues or errors, and roll back to the old version if needed12.

A canary upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a small and selected group of users or customers, before rolling it out to the rest of the population. This way, the upgrade can be evaluated for its performance, functionality, and feedback, and any problems or bugs can be fixed before affecting the majority of users or customers34.

A blue-green upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having two identical environments, one running the old version (blue) and one running the new version (green) of a software or service. The traffic is switched from the blue environment to the green environment once the new version is ready and tested. This way, the upgrade can be performed quickly and seamlessly, without any downtime or risk of failure. The blue environment can also serve as a backup in case of any issues with the green environment5 .

A staging upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having a separate environment that mimics the production environment, where the new version of a software or service is deployed and tested before moving it to the production environment. This way, the upgrade can be verified and validated for its compatibility, security, and quality, and any defects or errors can be resolved before affecting the live system .

To test the new web application in the public cloud, the systems administrator should create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new instance, and create a SSH tunnel. Creating a replica database can help minimize the downtime and ensure data consistency during the migration. Synchronizing the data can help keep the replica database up to date with the original database. Switching to the new instance can help activate the new web application in the public cloud. Creating a SSH tunnel can help bypass the network firewall and access the web application using TCP port 22. SSH is a secure protocol that can create encrypted tunnels between the local and remote hosts. By creating a SSH tunnel, the systems administrator can forward the web application traffic through the tunnel and test it using a web browser. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 7, Objective 7.1: Given a scenario, migrate applications and data to the cloud.

 To meet the requirements of the development team, the cloud administrator should integrate identity services and implement a VDI solution. Identity services are used to authenticate and authorize users and devices to access cloud resources. By integrating identity services, the cloud administrator can enable the development team to use their corporate email addresses to log in to the PaaS workstations. A VDI solution is a virtualization technology that allows users to access remote desktops hosted on a cloud platform. By implementing a VDI solution, the cloud administrator can provide the development team with workstations that have the necessary tools and configurations for web development. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 2, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, deploy cloud services and solutions.

DNS (Domain Name System) is a service that translates human-friendly domain names into IP addresses that can be used to communicate over the Internet1. However, DNS queries and responses are usually sent in plain text, which means that anyone who can intercept the network traffic can see the domain names that the users are requesting. This poses a threat to the confidentiality and privacy of the users and their online activities2.

To ensure confidentiality between the DNS server and an upstream DNS provider, a technician should configure DOH (DNS over HTTPS). DOH is a protocol that encrypts DNS queries and responses using HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure version of HTTP that uses SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) to protect the data in transit3. By using DOH, the technician can prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of DNS traffic by malicious actors3.

The other options are not the best steps to ensure confidentiality between the DNS server and an upstream DNS provider:

• Option A: Enable DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions). DNSSEC is a set of extensions that add digital signatures to DNS records, which can be used to verify the authenticity and integrity of the DNS data. DNSSEC can prevent DNS cache poisoning attacks, where an attacker inserts false DNS records into a DNS server’s cache, redirecting users to malicious websites. However, DNSSEC does not encrypt or hide the DNS queries and responses, so it does not provide confidentiality for DNS traffic2.
• Option B: Implement single sign-on (SSO). SSO is a mechanism that allows users to access multiple services or applications with one set of credentials, such as a username and password. SSO can simplify the authentication process and reduce the risk of password compromise or phishing attacks. However, SSO does not affect the communication between the DNS server and an upstream DNS provider, so it does not provide confidentiality for DNS traffic.
• Option D: Set up DNS over SSL (DNS over Secure Sockets Layer). This option is not a valid protocol for securing DNS traffic. SSL is a deprecated protocol that has been replaced by TLS (Transport Layer Security), which is more secure and robust. The correct protocol for encrypting DNS traffic using SSL/TLS is DOH (DNS over HTTPS), as explained above.

Tags are key-value pairs that can be applied to cloud resources to organize, categorize, and filter them. Tags can also be used to assign resources to backup jobs based on their RPO requirements. The cloud engineer forgot to configure the appropriate tag for the new VM that matches the text-based variable of the backup platform. Therefore, the backup platform did not add the VM to the correct job. References: Tags and labels | Cloud Storage | Google Cloud, CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0: Operations and Support, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, apply the appropriate methods for cost control in a cloud environment.

A misconfiguration in the firewall is the most likely cause of the issue. A firewall is a security device or service that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help protect the cloud-hosted web application and the managed database from unauthorized or malicious access. However, if the firewall rules are not configured properly, they can also block the legitimate communication between the web application and the database. For example, if the firewall rules deny the port or protocol that the web application uses to connect to the database, the web application will not be able to receive data from the database. To fix this issue, the cloud engineer should review and update the firewall rules to allow the necessary traffic between the web application and the database. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 9, Objective 9.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common security issues.

Performance monitoring is the process of collecting and analyzing metrics related to the performance and availability of resources in a cloud environment1. Performance monitoring can help a systems administrator to gather information about services and resource utilization on VMs in a cloud environment by providing the following benefits2:

• Identify and troubleshoot performance issues and bottlenecks before they affect the end users or business operations.
• Optimize the resource allocation and configuration to meet the performance requirements and SLAs of the services.
• Plan for future capacity and scalability needs based on the historical trends and patterns of resource utilization.
• Compare the performance and costs of different cloud service providers, regions, and SKUs.

Some of the tools and services that can help with performance monitoring in a cloud environment are3:

• Azure Monitor: A comprehensive service that provides a unified view of the health, performance, and availability of your Azure resources, applications, and services. Azure Monitor collects metrics, logs, and traces from various sources and provides analysis, visualization, alerting, and automation capabilities.
• Azure Advisor: A personalized service that provides recommendations to optimize your Azure resources for performance, security, cost, reliability, and operational excellence. Azure Advisor analyzes your resource configuration and usage data and suggests best practices to improve your cloud environment.
• Azure Application Insights: A service that monitors the performance and usage of your web applications and services. Application Insights collects telemetry data such as requests, dependencies, exceptions, page views, custom events, and metrics from your application code and provides powerful analytics, diagnostics, and alerting features.
• Azure Log Analytics: A service that collects and analyzes data from various sources such as Azure Monitor, Azure services, VMs, containers, applications, and other cloud or on-premises systems. Log Analytics enables you to query, visualize, and correlate log data using the Kusto Query Language (KQL) and create custom dashboards and reports.

Syslog is a standard protocol for sending log messages from network devices to a central server. Syslog can help with logging and auditing activities in a cloud environment, but it does not provide performance monitoring capabilities. Therefore, option A is incorrect.

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol for collecting and organizing information about managed devices on a network. SNMP can help with network management and monitoring in a cloud environment, but it does not provide comprehensive performance monitoring for VMs and services. Therefore, option B is incorrect.

CMDB (Configuration Management Database) is a database that stores information about the configuration items (CIs) in an IT environment. CMDB can help with configuration management and change management in a cloud environment, but it does not provide performance monitoring capabilities. Therefore, option C is incorrect.

Service management is a set of processes and practices that aim to deliver value to customers by providing quality services that meet their needs and expectations. Service management can help with service design, delivery, support, and improvement in a cloud environment, but it does not provide performance monitoring capabilities. Therefore, option D is incorrect.

Object storage is a storage option that stores data as discrete units called objects, which are identified by a unique identifier and can have metadata attached to them. Object storage can help the cloud engineer migrate the content to improve availability by decoupling the data from the underlying infrastructure and components. Object storage can also provide high scalability, durability, and redundancy for the data, as well as support for multiple protocols and access methods. Object storage can be accessed through APIs, web interfaces, or gateways that can emulate file or block storage. Object storage is suitable for storing unstructured or static data, such as web content, images, videos, or documents. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement cloud storage solutions.

Antivirus version and definition and OS patch level are important criteria for the organization to consider when allowing access to devices that meet the corporate security compliance levels. These criteria can help ensure that the devices are protected from malware and vulnerabilities that could compromise the security of the organization’s data and systems. Serial number, firmware, CPU architecture, and manufacturer are not directly related to security compliance levels, although they may be relevant for other purposes such as inventory management or compatibility.

References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, apply security configurations and compliance controls1 ; CompTIA Quick Start Guide to Tackling Cloud Security Concerns2

The first step in any incident response procedure is to contain the incident and prevent it from spreading or causing more damage. In this scenario, the systems administrator is reviewing the logs from a company’s IDS and notices a large amount of outgoing traffic from a particular server. The administrator then runs a scan on the server, which detects malware that cannot be removed. This indicates that the server is compromised and may be sending malicious or sensitive data to an external source. Therefore, the best thing to do first is to disconnect the server from the network, which will isolate it from the rest of the system and stop the data exfiltration. Determining the root cause, performing a more intrusive scan, and restoring the server from a backup are all important steps, but they should be done after the server is disconnected from the network. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10, Incident Response Procedures, page 1771.

A network access control list (ACL) is a set of rules that controls the inbound and outbound traffic for a network interface or a subnet. A deny rule can be used to block or filter the traffic from a specific source or destination, such as an IP address, a port number, or a protocol. By adding a deny rule to the network ACL, a systems administrator can prevent the communication between the compromised instance and the attacker, or between the compromised instance and other instances or servers. This can help to contain the security incident and limit the potential damage or data loss. A deny rule can also be used to isolate the compromised instance for further investigation or remediation. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Maintaining a Cloud Environment, page 222-223; What is a network access control list (ACL)?.

Anti-affinity is the concept of ensuring that certain virtual machines or workloads do not run on the same physical host. This can improve the availability and performance of the system, as well as prevent a single point of failure. In this scenario, the systems administrator needs to ensure the database nodes do not exist on the same physical host, so anti-affinity would best meet this requirement. Oversubscription is the concept of allocating more resources to virtual machines than the physical host actually has, which can improve the utilization and efficiency of the system, but it does not guarantee the separation of the database nodes. A firewall is a device or software that controls the network traffic between different zones or segments, which can improve the security and isolation of the system, but it does not affect the placement of the database nodes. A separate cluster is a group of hosts that share common resources and policies, which can improve the scalability and manageability of the system, but it does not ensure the database nodes do not exist on the same physical host within the cluster. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Cloud Architecture and Design, page 131.

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One possible answer is:

D. Migrate the data to flash storage.

Flash storage is a type of solid-state storage technology that uses flash memory chips to store data. Flash storage has several advantages over NL-SAS storage, which is a hybrid of SATA and SAS technologies that uses spinning disks to store data. Flash storage can provide much faster performance, lower latency, higher reliability, and lower power consumption than NL-SAS storage12. Therefore, migrating the data to flash storage can help correct the latency issue for the critical application. However, flash storage may also be more expensive and have lower capacity than NL-SAS storage, so these factors should also be considered before making the migration decision12.

The issue of an insecure firewall configuration state after every cloud application deployment is likely caused by a flaw in the IaC code used during the deployment. IaC stands for Infrastructure as Code, which is a method of managing and provisioning IT infrastructure using code, rather than manual configuration1. IaC allows teams to automate the setup and management of their infrastructure, making it more efficient and consistent. However, if the IaC code contains errors, vulnerabilities, or misconfigurations, it can result in security issues or compliance violations in the deployed infrastructure2. Therefore, to provide a permanent fix for the issue, the IaC code used during the deployment should be validated and tested to ensure that it meets the security requirements and best practices for firewall configuration. The IaC code can be validated using tools such as Azure Resource Manager Template Toolkit, AWS CloudFormation Linter, or Terraform Validate. These tools can check the syntax and semantics of the IaC code, and identify any potential errors or inconsistencies before deployment

The benchmark results show that the video RAM utilization is at 99%, which is likely causing the application crashes. Video RAM is used to store graphics data and textures that are processed by the GPU. Selecting a higher vGPU profile can help allocate more video RAM to the virtual machines, which can help resolve this issue. A vGPU profile is a predefined configuration that specifies the amount of video RAM, the number of display heads, and the maximum resolution that a virtual machine can use. By selecting a higher vGPU profile, the administrator can increase the performance and stability of the high-frame-rate rendering application. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide], Chapter 4, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common virtualization issues.

The correct answer is A. per gigabyte.

A cost model for a DBaaS is a way of determining how much the user pays for the database service. Different cost models may have different pricing factors, such as storage usage, data transfer, compute resources, and additional services.

A per gigabyte cost model is best for a cloud solution because it allows the user to pay only for the amount of storage space they use for their database. This way, the user can scale up or down their storage needs as per their requirements and budget. A per gigabyte cost model also reflects the actual cost of the infrastructure, software licenses, and maintenance that the service provider incurs to host and operate the database1.

A per seat cost model is not suitable for a cloud solution because it charges the user based on the number of seats or licenses they purchase for the database service. This means that the user may end up paying for more seats than they actually use, or not have enough seats to accommodate their users. A per seat cost model also does not account for the storage usage or performance of the database.

A per user cost model is also not suitable for a cloud solution because it charges the user based on the number of users who access the database service. This means that the user may have to pay more if they have a large number of users, or less if they have a small number of users. A per user cost model also does not account for the storage usage or performance of the database.

A per device cost model is also not suitable for a cloud solution because it charges the user based on the number of devices that connect to the database service. This means that the user may have to pay more if they have multiple devices per user, or less if they have one device per user. A per device cost model also does not account for the storage usage or performance of the database.

 Incremental backups only back up the files that have changed since the last backup, which minimizes the backup time and the performance impact on the application. Differential backups back up all the files that have changed since the last full backup, which can take longer and consume more storage space. Database dump and full backups are not suitable for weekday requirements, as they back up the entire database or filesystem, which can be time-consuming and resource-intensive.

References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 3.3: Given a scenario, implement backup, restore, disaster recovery and business continuity solutions

The answer is A. SAML. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between different parties, such as a user and a service provider. In a federated cluster, SAML can be used to enable single sign-on (SSO) for users across multiple clusters or cloud providers. SAML relies on the exchange of XML-based assertions that contain information about the user’s identity, attributes, and entitlements. If the users’ API access tokens have become invalid, it could be because the SAML assertions have expired, been revoked, or corrupted. The administrator should check the SAML configuration and logs to determine the cause of this issue.

Some possible sources of information about SAML and federated clusters are:

• Authenticating | Kubernetes: This page provides an overview of authenticating users in Kubernetes, including using SAML for federated identity.
• Authenticating to the Kubernetes API server - Google Cloud: This page explains how to authenticate to the Kubernetes API server on Google Cloud, including using SAML for federated identity with Google Cloud Identity Platform.
• Error 403 User not authorized when trying to access Azure Databricks API through Active Directory - Stack Overflow: This page discusses a similar issue of users getting an error when trying to access Azure Databricks API using SAML and Active Directory.

LTS stands for Long Term Support, and it is a term that refers to a version of an operating system that receives updates and security patches for a longer period of time than other versions. LTS versions are usually more stable and reliable than other versions, and they are suitable for users who want to avoid frequent changes or compatibility issues. By choosing LTS versions for the VMs that are hosted in a cloud environment, the systems administrator can ensure that the VMs receive updates for as long as possible, and benefit from the enhanced security and performance of the operating system. LTS versions are typically released every few years, and they are supported for several years after their release. For example, Ubuntu 20.04 LTS is supported until April 2025, while Ubuntu 21.04 is supported until January 2022. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common cloud resource and service issues.

A web application firewall (WAF) is a security solution that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the Internet. A WAF can help improve the site security by blocking malicious requests, preventing SQL injection attacks, mitigating cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, and enforcing security policies. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a device in front of the load balancer. A WAF is more suitable than an API gateway, an IPS/IDS, or a reverse proxy for the website architecture described in the question. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 9, Objective 9.1: Given a scenario, apply security controls and techniques.

To answer this question, we need to understand the different types of cloud computing models and how they suit the skill sets of the available personnel. According to Google Cloud, there are three main models for cloud computing: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS). Each model provides different levels of control, flexibility, and management over the cloud resources and services1.

• IaaS: This model provides access to networking features, computers (virtual or on dedicated hardware), and data storage space. It gives the highest level of flexibility and management control over the IT resources and is most similar to existing IT resources that many IT departments and developers are familiar with2.
• PaaS: This model provides a complete cloud platform for developing, running, and managing applications without the cost, complexity, and inflexibility of building and maintaining the underlying infrastructure. It removes the need for organizations to manage the hardware and operating systems and allows them to focus on the deployment and management of their applications2.
• SaaS: This model provides a completed product that is run and managed by the service provider. It does not require any installation, maintenance, or configuration by the customers. It is typically used for end-user applications that are accessed through a web browser or a mobile app2.

Based on these definitions, we can evaluate each option:

• Option A: Run the web servers in PaaS, and run the databases and email in SaaS. This option is not the best match for the skill sets of the available personnel because it does not leverage their expertise in Linux and web-server engineering. Running the web servers in PaaS means that they will have less control and customization over the web server environment and will have to rely on the service provider’s platform features. Running the databases and email in SaaS means that they will not need any database administration or email management skills, but they will also have less flexibility and security over their data and communication.
• Option B: Run the web servers, databases, and email in SaaS. This option is not a good match for the skill sets of the available personnel because it does not utilize their skills at all. Running everything in SaaS means that they will have no control or responsibility over any aspect of their cloud environment and will have to depend entirely on the service provider’s products. This option may be suitable for some small businesses or non-technical users who do not have any IT skills or resources, but not for a company that has skilled Linux and web-server engineers.
• Option C: Run the web servers in IaaS, the databases in PaaS, and the email in SaaS. This option is the best match for the skill sets of the available personnel because it balances their strengths and weaknesses. Running the web servers in IaaS means that they can use their Linux and web-server engineering skills to configure, manage, and optimize their web server infrastructure according to their needs. Running the databases in PaaS means that they can leverage the service provider’s platform features to simplify their database development and administration tasks without having to worry about the underlying hardware and operating systems. Running the email in SaaS means that they can outsource their email services to a reliable and secure service provider without having to invest in or manage their own email infrastructure.
• Option D: Run the web servers, databases, and email in IaaS. This option is not a good match for the skill sets of the available personnel because it puts too much burden on them. Running everything in IaaS means that they will have to handle all aspects of their cloud environment, including networking, computing, storage, security, backup, scaling, patching, etc. This option may be suitable for some large enterprises or highly technical users who have full control and customization over their cloud environment, but not for a company that has only a couple of skilled database administrators and little expertise in managing email services.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

A web-server farm is a group of web servers that work together to provide high availability and scalability for web applications1. A web-server farm can handle a large number of requests from clients by distributing the workload among the servers.

A load-balancing appliance is a device that sits between the clients and the web servers and distributes the incoming requests to the servers based on a predefined algorithm2. A load-balancing appliance can improve the performance, reliability, and security of a web-server farm by providing the following benefits2:

• Load balancing: It ensures that no single server is overloaded and that all servers are utilized efficiently.
• Failover: It detects and redirects requests from failed or unavailable servers to healthy ones.
• Health monitoring: It periodically checks the status and performance of the servers and reports any issues or anomalies.
• SSL offloading: It terminates the SSL connections from the clients and forwards the requests to the servers in plain text, reducing the encryption overhead on the servers.
• Caching: It stores frequently requested content in its memory and serves it to the clients, reducing the network traffic and load on the servers.

A clustered web server infrastructure is a configuration where multiple web servers are connected to a shared storage device and appear as a single logical server to the clients3. A clustered web server infrastructure can provide high availability and fault tolerance for web applications, but it does not provide load balancing or scalability. Therefore, option A is incorrect.

A containerized application is an application that is packaged with its dependencies and runtime environment in a lightweight and portable unit called a container. A containerized application can run on any platform that supports container technology, such as Docker or Kubernetes. A containerized application can provide portability, consistency, and isolation for web applications, but it does not provide load balancing or scalability by itself. Therefore, option C is incorrect.

Distribution of web servers across different regions and zones is a strategy that involves deploying web servers in multiple geographic locations to serve clients from different areas. Distribution of web servers across different regions and zones can provide low latency, high availability, and disaster recovery for web applications, but it does not provide load balancing or scalability within each region or zone. Therefore, option D is incorrect.

One of the main benefits of cloud computing is that you only pay for the resources that you use. However, this also means that you need to manage your cloud resources efficiently and avoid paying for idle or unused resources1.

Shutting down the environment after work hours is a process that can be automated to best reduce cost in a cloud environment that must only be accessed during work hours. This process involves stopping or terminating the cloud resources, such as virtual machines, databases, load balancers, etc., that are not needed outside of the work hours. This can significantly reduce the cloud bill by avoiding charges for compute, storage, network, and other services that are not in use2.

The other options are not the best processes to automate to reduce cost in this scenario:

• Option A: Scaling of the environment after work hours. Scaling is a process that involves adjusting the number or size of cloud resources to match the demand or workload. Scaling can be done manually or automatically using triggers or policies. Scaling can help optimize the performance and availability of a cloud environment, but it does not necessarily reduce the cost. Scaling down the environment after work hours may reduce some costs, but it may still incur charges for the remaining resources. Scaling up the environment before work hours may increase the cost and also introduce delays or errors in provisioning new resources3.
• Option B: Implementing access control after work hours. Access control is a process that involves defining and enforcing rules and policies for who can access what resources in a cloud environment. Access control can help improve the security and compliance of a cloud environment, but it does not directly affect the cost. Implementing access control after work hours may prevent unauthorized access to the environment, but it does not stop or terminate the resources that are still running and consuming cloud services4.
• Option D: Blocking external access to the environment after work hours. Blocking external access is a process that involves restricting or denying network traffic from outside sources to a cloud environment. Blocking external access can help protect the environment from potential attacks or breaches, but it does not impact the cost. Blocking external access after work hours may prevent unwanted requests or connections to the environment, but it does not shut down or release the resources that are still active and generating cloud charges.

Shutting down the environment after work hours is the best process to automate to reduce cost, as it will stop incurring charges for the cloud resources that are not needed outside of work hours. Scaling, implementing access control, or blocking external access may still incur some costs for the cloud resources that are running or reserved, even if they are not fully utilized. Shutting down the environment can be automated using scripts, schedules, or triggers that can turn off or deallocate the cloud resources based on time or usage criteria12.

A deployment template is a file that defines the resources and configurations that are required to deploy a cloud solution1. A deployment template can be used to automate the deployment of cloud infrastructure for clients, ensuring consistency and efficiency2. However, if the deployment template was modified, either intentionally or accidentally, it could cause discrepancies from the baseline in the configuration of infrastructure that was deployed to a new client. For example, the template could have different parameters, values, or dependencies that affect the outcome of the deployment3. Therefore, the most likely cause of the issue is that the deployment template was modified.

References:

1: What is a template? - Azure Resource Manager | Microsoft Docs3

2: Automate cloud deployments with Azure Resource Manager templates - Learn | Microsoft Docs3

3: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, deploy and test a cloud solution

The answer is B. A VPN tunnel. A VPN tunnel is a secure and encrypted connection between two networks over a public network, such as the Internet. A VPN tunnel can help protect data in transit by encrypting it before it leaves the company’s network and decrypting it when it reaches the public cloud service provider. A VPN tunnel can also authenticate the endpoints and verify the integrity of the data.

Some possible sources of information about VPN tunnels are:

• What is a VPN Tunnel? | Fortinet: This page explains what a VPN tunnel is, how it works, and what benefits it provides.
• VPN Gateway: Create a Site-to-Site connection using a VPN gateway | Microsoft Docs: This page shows how to create a site-to-site connection using a VPN gateway in Azure.
• [Cloud VPN overview | Google Cloud]: This page provides an overview of Cloud VPN, a service that creates secure and reliable VPN tunnels to Google Cloud.

These are the best practices to secure the OS of a new web server that has been provisioned in a cloud environment:

• Install TLS certificates on the server: TLS (Transport Layer Security) certificates are digital documents that contain information such as identity, public key, expiration date, etc., that can be used to prove one’s identity and establish secure communication over a network. Installing TLS certificates on the web server can encrypt and secure web traffic between the server and the clients, as well as prevent spoofing or impersonation attacks.
• Disable password authentication: Password authentication is a method of verifying and authenticating users or devices based on passwords or other credentials. Password authentication can be insecure or vulnerable to attacks such as brute force, dictionary, phishing, etc., especially if passwords are weak, reused, or compromised. Disabling password authentication can enhance security by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the web server using passwords.
• Enable SSH key access only: SSH key access is a method of verifying and authenticating users or devices based on digital keys issued by a trusted authority. SSH key access can provide more security and convenience than password authentication, as it does not require users or devices to remember or enter passwords every time they access the web server. Enabling SSH key access only can ensure that only authorized or trusted users or devices can access the web server using keys.

LTS (Long Term Support) is the update branch that the administrator should choose to ensure the system receives updates that are maintained for at least four years. An update branch is a category or group of updates that have different characteristics or features, such as frequency, stability, duration, etc. An update branch can help customers to choose the type of updates that suit their needs and preferences. LTS is an update branch that provides updates that are stable, reliable, and secure, and are supported for a long period of time, usually four years or more. LTS can help customers who value stability and security over new features or functions, and who do not want to change or upgrade their systems frequently.

Containers are the best approach to design a new machine-learning platform that needs to be portable between public and private clouds and should be kept as small as possible. Containers are isolated environments that can run applications and their dependencies without interfering with other processes or systems. Containers are lightweight, portable, and scalable, which makes them ideal for machine-learning applications. Containers can be moved easily between public and private clouds without requiring any changes or modifications. Containers can also reduce the size and complexity of applications by using only the necessary components and libraries.

PaaS (Platform as a Service) is a cloud service model that provides a platform for developing, testing, deploying, and managing applications in the cloud. PaaS includes the underlying infrastructure (servers, storage, network, etc.) as well as the middleware, databases, tools, frameworks, and APIs that are required for application development and delivery. Examples of PaaS are AWS Elastic Beanstalk, Azure App Service, Google App Engine, etc.

User permissions are not correct is the most likely cause of the error 403 (Forbidden) that is returned when a coworker attempts to use a deployment script after being set up for API access to a public cloud environment by an administrator. API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and interact with each other. API access is the ability to use or access an API to perform certain actions or tasks on a software component or system. User permissions are the settings or policies that control and restrict what users can do or access on a software component or system. User permissions can affect API access by determining what actions or tasks users can perform using an API on a software component or system. User permissions are not correct if they do not match or align with the intended or expected actions or tasks that users want to perform using an API on a software component or system. User permissions are not correct can cause error 403 (Forbidden), which means that the user does not have the necessary permission or authorization to perform the requested action or task using an API on a software component or system.

These are the network ports that are required from a security perspective to copy a large set of files between the private and public cloud through a VPN tunnel. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunnel is a secure and encrypted connection that allows data to be transferred between two networks or locations over the public internet. To copy files between the private and public cloud, the following ports are needed:

• Port 22: This is the port used by SSH (Secure Shell) protocol, which is a method of remotely accessing and managing cloud resources or systems using a command-line interface. SSH can also be used to securely transfer files using SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol).
• Port 443: This is the port used by HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a protocol that encrypts and secures web traffic. HTTPS can also be used to transfer files using web browsers or tools such as curl or wget.
• Port 445: This is the port used by SMB (Server Message Block) protocol, which is a protocol that allows file sharing and access over a network. SMB can also be used to transfer files using tools such as robocopy or rsync.

Implementing an application whitelisting policy is the best way to prevent users from running malware on several IaaS compute instances. Application whitelisting is a security technique that allows only authorized or trusted applications to run on a system or device, and blocks or restricts all other applications. Application whitelisting can prevent users from running malware or unwanted software on their cloud instances, as well as reduce the attack surface and vulnerabilities of the system.

An expired password is the most likely cause of the failure of a custom VM deployment script that no longer joins the LDAP domain. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol that allows access and management of directory services, such as user accounts, groups, permissions, etc., over a network. LDAP can be used to authenticate and authorize users or devices to access network resources or systems. An expired password is a password that has reached its validity period and needs to be changed or renewed. An expired password can prevent users or devices from joining or accessing an LDAP domain, as it may indicate that the account is inactive, compromised, or outdated.

A type 1 hypervisor is what would best meet the requirements of high-performance VMs (Virtual Machines), more secure, and has system independence for a company that wants to move its environment from on premises to the cloud without vendor lock-in. A hypervisor is a software or hardware that allows multiple VMs to run on a single physical host or server. A hypervisor can be classified into two types:

• Type 1 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs directly on the hardware or bare metal of the host or server, without any underlying OS (Operating System). A type 1 hypervisor can provide benefits such as:
• Type 2 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs on top of an OS of the host or server, as a software application or program. A type 2 hypervisor can provide benefits such as: