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GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

Options:

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

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Questions 5

What is the significance of evaluating costs and benefits during design?

Options:

A.

It enables the organization to decide it would rather bear the risk and cost of a compliance enforcement action than spend more money to ensure compliance.

B.

It determines the number of employees to commit to any aspect of the design.

C.

It provides insights into the preferences and behaviors of customers and clients.

D.

It ensures that the costs do not outweigh the benefits of a design decision.

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Questions 6

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

Options:

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

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Questions 7

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

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Questions 8

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

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Questions 9

In the IACM, what is the role of Compound/Accelerate Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To identify and address any potential conflicts of interest that may compound or accelerate enforcement actions against the company.

B.

To enhance the brand image and reputation of the organization.

C.

To accelerate and compound the impact of favorable events to increase benefits and promote the future occurrence.

D.

To accelerate and compound the benefits of reducing costs.

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Questions 10

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

Options:

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Questions 11

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

Options:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

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Questions 12

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

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Questions 13

What is the term used to describe the measure of the negative effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Harm

C.

Obstacle

D.

Threat

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Questions 14

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

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Questions 15

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

Options:

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

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Questions 16

In the IACM, what is the role of Governance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist the governing authority in constraining and constraining the organization

B.

To develop and implement innovative business strategies

C.

To engage with stakeholders and address their concerns

D.

To monitor and evaluate the performance of suppliers and vendors

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Questions 17

What is the difference between an organization’s mission and vision?

Options:

A.

The mission is focused on external stakeholders, while the vision is focused on internal stakeholders.

B.

The mission is a short-term goal or set of goals, while the vision is a long-term goal or set ofgoals.

C.

The mission is an objective that states who the organization serves, what it does, and what it hopes to achieve, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be and why it matters.

D.

The mission is a financial target, while the vision is a non-financial target.

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Questions 18

How does the Maturity Model help organizations assess their preparedness to perform practices?

Options:

A.

By evaluating the performance of managers and their teams involved in GRC processes

B.

By acting as a tool for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

C.

By helping organizations determine the budget allocation for GRC programs and where to apply resources across the GRC capabilities

D.

By providing a continuum with levels that allow organizations to assess their capability to perform practices, identify areas for improvement, and develop maturity incrementally from one level to the next

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Questions 19

Which is a potential consequence of information compression in layered communication?

Options:

A.

Uninformed decision-making by mid-level management

B.

No consequence of concern if the correct, undistorted information is always available in the information management systems

C.

Incorrect information content and information flow to superior units

D.

Discovery of the need to remove layers so that the communications are more direct and distortion is avoided

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Questions 20

How can an organization ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units?

Options:

A.

By establishing a single point for referral regardless of the topic or type

B.

By prioritizing, substantiating, validating, and routing notifications based on topic, type, and severity

C.

By disregarding any notifications that do not meet specific criteria or thresholds so the remainder can be more efficiently routed

D.

By requiring that all notifications be reviewed by the general counsel before any action is taken

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Questions 21

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

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Questions 22

What are some examples of action and control categories as described in the IACM?

Options:

A.

Policy, process change, punishment, incentives, and employee education

B.

Policy, people, process, physical, informational, technological, and financial actions and controls

C.

Outsourcing, downsizing, and automation as the primary means of control

D.

Random selection, trial and error, and reliance on intuition and experience

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Questions 23

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

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Questions 24

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Likelihood and impact

B.

Probability and consequence

C.

Certainty and effect

D.

Accuracy and precision

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Questions 25

What is the purpose of defining identification criteria?

Options:

A.

To establish the organizational hierarchy for decision-making

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are identified, categorized, and prioritized

C.

To create a list of potential stakeholders for communication purposes

D.

To determine the budget allocation for risk management activities

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Questions 26

What does agility in the context of the PERFORM component refer to?

Options:

A.

The proficiency in building and maintaining relationships with partners and suppliers who must implement Perform actions and controls

B.

The ability to quickly change direction in Perform actions and controls when things change

C.

The capacity to innovate and develop new ways to implement Perform actions and controls

D.

The capability to manage and resolve conflicts and disputes regarding Perform actions and controls

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Questions 27

What is the goal of implementing communication practices in an organization?

Options:

A.

To minimize the number of communication channels used within the organization and increase efficiency

B.

To ensure that all communication is formal and documented as required by law and regulation

C.

To eliminate informal communications that may provide incorrect information

D.

To address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations by interacting with the right audiences at the right time with the right information and intelligence

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Questions 28

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

Options:

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

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Questions 29

Why is it important for an organization to prioritize the concerns and needs of stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To organize stakeholder appreciation events

B.

To rank the most valuable stakeholders

C.

To highlight and address needs that compete with or conflict with each other

D.

To create a stakeholder directory

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Questions 30

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves acting deliberately in advance to reduce the risk of being caught off guard?

Options:

A.

Proactive

B.

Versatile

C.

Collaborative

D.

Assertive

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Questions 31

What are beliefs, and how do they influence behavior within an organization?

Options:

A.

Beliefs are ideas and assumptions held by individuals or groups, often shaped by experiences and perceptions, that influence behavior by informing the values and principles that guide actions and decisions.

B.

Beliefs are the organization’s commitments to mandatory and voluntary obligations, and they influence behavior by determining the extent to which individuals fulfill obligations and honor promises.

C.

Beliefs are the organization’s understanding of its mission, vision, and values, and they influence behavior by aligning actions with the organization's higher purpose and long-term goals.

D.

Beliefs are the organization’s perceptions of risk and uncertainty, and they influence behavior by guiding actions and controls to address compliance-related risks.

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Questions 32

Which statement is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The organization should have an education plan for each target population indicating what they should know about the GRC capability and their responsibilities for GRC activities.

B.

Regardless of role, everyone in the organization should receive the same curriculum and the same education activities to ensure consistent understanding.

C.

The organization should conduct a needs assessment to determine the training that will address high-risk situations and develop a training plan for each job or job family.

D.

The organization should identify legally mandated education, including who must be educated, the content required, the time required, and methods that may be used for each required course.

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Questions 33

The Critical Discipline skills of Compliance & Ethics help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

B.

Planning for risks, identifying risks, assessing risks, addressing risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and using decision science

C.

Identifying mandatory and voluntary obligations, assessing risk, setting policy, educating the workforce, and shaping ethical culture

D.

Fostering creativity, encouraging innovation, facilitating brainstorming, supporting idea generation, and promoting design thinking

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Questions 34

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

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Questions 35

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

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Questions 36

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

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Questions 37

What is the purpose of conducting after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events

B.

To provide timely incentives to employees for favorable conduct

C.

To uncover root causes of favorable and unfavorable events and improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

To establish a tiered approach for responding to unfavorable events

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Questions 38

Why is it important to ensure that stakeholders raise issues directly with the organization rather than using external pathways?

Options:

A.

To afford more flexibility in corrective action and allow the organization to address concerns promptly

B.

To prevent stakeholders from getting a whistleblower reward

C.

To ensure that stakeholders' concerns are hidden from the media

D.

To provide time to fix the identified issue and not have to report it to any stakeholders

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Questions 39

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

Options:

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

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Questions 40

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

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Questions 41

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

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Questions 42

What does agility in the context of the PERFORM component refer to?

Options:

A.

The proficiency in building and maintaining relationships with partners and suppliers who must implement Perform actions and controls

B.

The ability to quickly change direction in Perform actions and controls when things change

C.

The capacity to innovate and develop new ways to implement Perform actions and controls

D.

The capability to manage and resolve conflicts and disputes regarding Perform actions and controls

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Questions 43

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

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Questions 44

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

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Questions 45

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be"Lean"?

Options:

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

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Questions 46

How does assurance help management and stakeholders gain confidence?

Options:

A.

It ensures policies and procedures meet regulatory standards

B.

It ensures financial statements are accurate and free from misstatements

C.

It helps identify and mitigate potential risks and threats to the organization

D.

It verifies that what stakeholders believe is happening, is actually happening

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Questions 47

What is the purpose of mapping objectives to one another?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives is a way to reduce the need for communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

B.

Mapping objectives shows how objectives impact one another and helps allocate resources to achieve the most important objectives and priorities

C.

Mapping objectives is only relevant for financial objectives and has no impact on non-financial objectives

D.

Mapping objectives allows the organization to ignore subordinate-level objectives and focus only on superior-level objectives

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Questions 48

What are some examples of technology factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market segmentation, pricing strategies, and promotional activities

B.

Research and Design activity, innovations in materials, mechanical efficiency, and the rate of technological change

C.

How the organization uses technology for employee recruitment, onboarding processes, and performance appraisals

D.

How the organization uses financial forecasting, budgeting, and cost control

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Questions 49

A self-legitimizing person, group, or other entity with a direct or indirect invested interest in an organization’s actions because of the perceived or actual impact is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Shareholder

B.

Stakeholder

C.

Executive Team

D.

Customer

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Questions 50

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

Options:

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

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Questions 51

Which "most important stakeholder" judges whether an organization is producing, protecting, or destroying value?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Risk Manager

C.

Board

D.

Ethics Department

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Questions 52

What is the significance of “assurance objectivity” in providing a higher level of assurance?

Options:

A.

It is only important for high levels of assurance in financial audits

B.

It is not relevant to the level of assurance and does not affect the assurance process

C.

It contributes to a higher level of assurance by enhancing impartiality and credibility

D.

It is determined by the governing authority and enhances the level of assurance

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Questions 53

Which design option is characterized by implementing actions that govern and manage the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation according to its nature?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Share

C.

Accept

D.

Avoid

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Questions 54

How does budgeting for regular improvement activities contribute to capability maturation?

Options:

A.

It ensures that resources are available when opportunities to improve arise

B.

It increases the organization’s profitability and revenue

C.

It minimizes the risk of legal disputes and litigation

D.

It reduces the need for external audits and assessments

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Questions 55

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Accuracy and precision

B.

Likelihood and impact

C.

Probability and consequence

D.

Certainty and effect

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Questions 56

What is the importance of analyzing workforce culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

To analyze the climate and mindsets about workforce satisfaction, loyalty, turnover rates, skill development, and engagement

B.

To determine the organization’s commitment to reducing turnover and supporting employee advancement

C.

To ensure the organization’s compliance with environmental regulations and sustainability practices that evidence ethical concern

D.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s employee training in ethical decision-making

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Questions 57

What is the process of validating direction within an organization?

Options:

A.

Conducting a SWOT analysis to identify the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

B.

Communicating, negotiating, and finalizing direction with other organizational levels/units.

C.

Conducting a comprehensive audit of the organization’s financial records to ensure they are showing movement in the right direction.

D.

Implementing a performance management system to evaluate employee performance and alignment to established direction.

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Questions 58

What is the purpose of using the SMART model for results and indicators?

Options:

A.

To define results and indicators that are Stacked, Monitored, Achievable, Right, and Timely, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

B.

To assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization.

C.

To create a detailed budget and financial forecast for the organization.

D.

To define results and indicators that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-Bound, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

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Questions 59

In the context of Principled Performance, what is the definition of integrity?

Options:

A.

Integrity is the absence of any legal disputes or conflicts within an organization

B.

Integrity is the ability to achieve financial success as promised to shareholders

C.

Integrity is the process of complying with all government regulations

D.

Integrity is the state of being whole and complete by fulfilling obligations, honoring promises, and cleaning up the mess if a promise was broken

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Questions 60

What are some examples of industry factors that may influence an organization’s external context?

Options:

A.

Product development, branding, and advertising campaigns.

B.

Political involvement of competitors.

C.

New entrants, competitors, suppliers, and customers.

D.

New technologies available to the organization and its competitors.

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Questions 61

What is the primary focus of management actions and controls in the IACM?

Options:

A.

To oversee employees and meet target objectives for the unit being managed.

B.

To directly address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To minimize costs and maximize profits.

D.

To ensure strict adherence to external regulations and internal policies.

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Questions 62

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

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Questions 63

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Exam Code: GRCP
Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
Last Update: Feb 22, 2025
Questions: 212
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