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ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

•Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

•Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

•Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

Test planning.

B.

Test analysis.

C.

Test design.

D.

Test monitoring and control.

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Questions 5

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects

[1]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads.

[ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user,

[iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.

[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

[ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks

B.

[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.

C.

[i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks

D.

[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.

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Questions 6

A possible risk of introducing test automation is:

Options:

A.

the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.

B.

the tool may create additional development dependencies.

C.

the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.

D.

the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.

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Questions 7

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Options:

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

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Questions 8

Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Requirements based testing

C.

Metric based approach

D.

Regression testing

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Questions 9

Which of the following statements best describes an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It allows the team to deliver software faster by skipping testing and documentation activities.

B.

It enables the team to share responsibility for quality and collaborate with stakeholders throughout the project.

C.

It enables a better division of labor as the team shares a common workspace in one physical location.

D.

It fosters competition and individualism among team members to achieve higher performance.

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

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Questions 11

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Questions 12

The whole-team approach:

Options:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Questions 13

Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

Options:

A.

When a new test automation tool is launched

B.

When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks

C.

When it is easy to automate

D.

When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

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Questions 14

Given the following review types and review characteristics:

a.Pair review

b.Walkthrough

c.Technical review

d.Inspection

1.Formal

2.Informal

3.Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)

4.Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?

Options:

A.

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

B.

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

C.

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

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Questions 15

A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

Options:

A.

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

B.

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

C.

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

D.

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

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Questions 16

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

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Questions 17

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.

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Questions 18

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

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Questions 19

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Questions 20

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

Options:

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

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Questions 21

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

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Questions 22

Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation technique-Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days Most likely effort (m) -180 person days Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days

Options:

A.

180

B.

120

C.

197

D.

20

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model?

Options:

A.

Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable specifications that drive coding

B.

Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level

C.

Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly

D.

Involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle

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Questions 24

Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis.

B.

Error guessing

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Fault attack

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Questions 25

Which of the following are valid testing principles?

I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.

II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.

III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.

IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.

V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.

Options:

A.

I, IV, V

B.

II, Iv

C.

I, V

D.

I, Ill

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Questions 26

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

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Questions 27

Which of the following statements best describes the way in which decision coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

B.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the tests, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

C.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

D.

It is not possible to accurately measure decision coverage.

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Questions 28

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

Options:

A.

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

B.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

C.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

D.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

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Questions 29

A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort.

i. Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis

ii. Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level

iii. Frequent regression testing may need to be performed

iv Extensive product documentation

v. More use of exploratory testing

Which of the following statements is MOST correct?

Options:

A.

i and iv are characteristics of sequential models; ii. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

B.

ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models; i. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

C.

iii and iv are characteristics of sequential models and i. ii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

D.

ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

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Questions 30

A tester created a decision table(DT) given below. While reviewing the DT some of the actions for the given conditions were found to be incorrect. The user is trying to view the profile, which of the given conditions has CORRECT action(s) listed?

Options:

A.

C1

B.

C4

C.

C3

D.

C2

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Questions 31

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Questions 32

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

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Questions 33

What role in a formal or technical review should mediate between different opinions to ensure an effective review?

Options:

A.

Scribe (or recorder)

B.

Manager

C.

Moderator (or facilitator)

D.

Reviewer

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Questions 34

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Questions 35

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I. Ill

B.

I, IV

C.

II. IV

D.

II. Ill

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Questions 37

You are testing the download process of a mobile phone application.

For which to the following capabilities to the system you need to design a nonfunctional test?

Options:

A.

It was easy to locate, download and install the application

B.

The application was correctly downloaded

C.

The application created an installation log file in a given folder

D.

The application installed only after the user's approval

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Questions 38

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive. Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is TRUE?

Options:

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced.

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing.

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

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Questions 39

Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?

Options:

A.

Code is refactored first then tests are written and run

B.

Application behaviour is written in Given/When/then format and tests are then written and run

C.

Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests

D.

First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated

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Questions 40

Which of the following BEST explains a drawback of independent testing?

Options:

A.

Having the business organization participate as an independent test team can hurt the overall testing effort since business participants are often not trained nor experienced in testing

B.

Due to their differing backgrounds and perspectives, an independent test team may discover defects which the developers did not uncover

C.

An independent test team may be isolated from the rest of the development and project team

D.

An independent test team may possess specializations in specific test types such as usability or security which detract from the overall effectiveness of the test team

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Questions 41

A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.

Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.

Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement

Options:

A.

It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

B.

It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)

C.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)

D.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)

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Questions 42

Which of the following is an example of tasks most associated with the test design activity?

Options:

A.

The project manager updates the project schedule as key test tasks are completed

B.

Test data, derived from production data, is loaded into the test environment

C.

Every day. the tester notes the status of his/her test cases in preparation for daily reports

D.

The identification of test execution and test automation tools

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Questions 43

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

Options:

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

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Questions 44

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

Options:

A.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

B.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

C.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

D.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

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Questions 45

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

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Questions 46

You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

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Questions 47

Which of the following statements best describes the objective of branch testing?

Options:

A.

Branch testing is used to verify the functionality of an application on all logical branches without knowledge of its internal workings.

B.

Branch testing is used to check the interactive reachable branches of the user interface of an application.

C.

Branch testing is used to verify the performance of an application on certain branches.

D.

Branch testing is used to execute some or all branches in the code of an application at least once.

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Questions 48

Which of the following statements about static testing is true?

Options:

A.

Static testing is NOT suitable for finding coding defects. For this, dynamic testing is necessary.

B.

Static testing should be done instead of dynamic testing, as both find the same defects.

C.

Static tests are NOT suitable to evaluate the quality of work results.

D.

It makes sense to perform static testing before dynamic testing, because defects can be found earlier or at lower cost.

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Questions 49

Which ONE of the following roles is responsible for mediating, managing time, and generating a safe review environment in which everyone can speak freely?

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

Reviewer

C.

Review leader

D.

Moderator

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Questions 50

The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?

Options:

A.

Requirements elicitation

B.

Defect analysis

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Performance Testing

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Questions 51

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

Options:

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

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Questions 52

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps, the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

Options:

A.

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.

Change history.

C.

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.

Status of defect

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Questions 53

Which is an advantage of using testers that are independent from the development team?

Options:

A.

Independent testers support the developers with their feedback on coding rules and architecture design.

B.

Developers can delegate their sense of responsibility for quality to testers.

C.

Independent testers have a different perspective and can find defects that developers miss.

D.

Independent testers will identify themselves more with the project and the project goals and have good relations with the development team.

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Questions 54

Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

Options:

A.

II, Ill

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

III, IV

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Questions 55

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

Options:

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

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Questions 56

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

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Questions 57

The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

Options:

A.

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,

Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

B.

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,

Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

C.

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing,

Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

D.

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development;

Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

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Questions 58

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Questions 59

In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?

Options:

A.

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

B.

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

C.

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

D.

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

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Questions 60

Given some statements about independence of testing

i. Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii. Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work

iii. Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

iv Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses

Which of the following CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

Options:

A.

ii and iv

B.

iii and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

i and iv

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Questions 61

Which of the following activities is NOT a pan of the fundamental testing process?

Options:

A.

Archiving automation code

B.

Test status reporting

C.

Test process improvement

D.

Build release and maintenance

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Questions 62

A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.

Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?

Options:

A.

V-Model

B.

Agile

C.

Waterfall

D.

Prototyping

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Questions 63

A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:

- E; the emission level of the vehicle

- P: the power of the vehicle

-T the type of the vehicle

The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.

Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?

Options:

A.

14,351

B.

14,15,350,351

C.

15,350

D.

5.175.500

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Questions 64

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Questions 65

Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?

Options:

A.

Debugging identifies the cause of a failure

B.

Debugging is often performed by test engineers

C.

Debugging is considered part of the testing activities

D.

Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code

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Questions 66

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

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Questions 67

In a museum there are staggered entrance fees:

    Free admission: children under 14 years

    Reduced admission: young people aged 14 and under 18, retiree, students and welfare recipients

    Regular price: all other persons

Which of the following four options describes the minimum set of test data that reaches 100% coverage of all valid equivalence classes for the admission fees?

Options:

A.

Child (12 years), student (23 years), retiree (68 years)

B.

Youth (16 years), adult (35 years), adult (60 years)

C.

Child (12 years), welfare recipient (45 years), retiree (68 years)

D.

Child (12 years), adult (35 years), retiree (68 years)

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Questions 68

Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S4

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1

C.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

D.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Questions 69

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

Options:

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

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Questions 70

The following open incident report provided:

Date: 01.01.01

Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention" instead of "Ready'.

Severity: High

Life Cycle: Integration

Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report?

I. Identification or configuration of the application

II. The name of the developer

III. Recommendation of the developer

IV The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button

Options:

A.

IV

B.

I. IV

C.

I. II

D.

II, III

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Questions 71

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

Options:

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

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Questions 72

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

Options:

A.

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

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Questions 73

Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.

To find failures and defects

D.

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

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Questions 74

Which of the following statements regarding the impact of the chosen software development lifecycle model on testing is true?

Options:

A.

The chosen software development lifecycle model has no impact on the number of regression test cases.

B.

The chosen software development lifecycle model influences when testing activities should start and end.

C.

The chosen software development lifecycle model determines the type of tests to be performed.

D.

The chosen software development lifecycle model does not affect the scope of the non-functional tests and the test tools to be used.

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Questions 75

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

Options:

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

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Questions 76

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Options:

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

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Questions 77

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the purpose of confirmation testing versus regression testing?

Options:

A.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

Confirmation testing ensures the entire system functions as expected, whereas regression testing focuses only on modified components.

C.

Confirmation testing verifies all system requirements, while regression testing ensures that no additional test cases are needed.

D.

Regression testing and confirmation testing are interchangeable and serve the same purpose.

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Questions 78

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

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Questions 79

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies to checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

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Questions 80

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

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Questions 81

Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

Options:

A.

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

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Questions 82

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

Options:

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

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Questions 83

A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Informal Review

C.

Technical Review

D.

Management Review

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Questions 84

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Test schedules

B.

Cost of testing performed so far

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Number of unfixed defects

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Questions 85

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

Options:

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Questions 86

Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criterion helps avoid this

B.

No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

C.

Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the desired quality level defined for the project

D.

No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

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Questions 87

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations

B.

A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements

C.

Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work

D.

Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user

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Questions 88

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

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Questions 89

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software. Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Test Execution tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Incident Management Tool

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Questions 90

You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?

i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.

II. Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.

Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.

iv. Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.

v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv and v

B.

i, ii and iii

C.

i, iii and v

D.

iii. iv and v

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Questions 91

You are testing a system that is used in motor vehicles to warn the driver of an obstacle when re-versing. Output is provided by a series of LED lights (green, yellow, and red), each illuminated based on clearly defined conditions.

The following summary describes the functionality:

•Object within 10 metres, green LED lit.

•Object within 5 metres, yellow LED lit.

•Object within 1 metre, red LED lit.

•Setting sensitivity mode to "ON" will result in only the red LED being lit when the object is within 1 metre.

The following decision table describes the rules associated with the functioning of this proximity warning system:

Which intended functionality is tested by Rule 5 in the decision table?

Options:

A.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

B.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

C.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in no LED being lit.

D.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in no LED being lit.

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Questions 92

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

Options:

A.

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

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Questions 93

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Questions 94

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects.

B.

That can be organised into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project.

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

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Questions 95

A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on

- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)

- the travelling type (as single or in a group)

- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)

- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)

Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage

B.

State transition testing

C.

Equivalence partitioning

D.

Use case testing

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Questions 96

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

Options:

A.

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code

B.

box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

C.

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

D.

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

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Questions 97

Which of the following statements is true in regards to how the context of a project affects the testing process?

Options:

A.

The context of testing determines which testing techniques are appropriate for a given project.

B.

The context of testing is not important as long as the test process follows a standard model.

C.

The context of testing only affects the non-functional aspects of testing, such as performance and usability.

D.

The context of testing is fixed and cannot change during a project lifecycle.

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Questions 98

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Questions 99

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

Options:

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of test implementation tool

C.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

D.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

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Questions 100

Which of the options below about statement testing is correct?

Options:

A.

100% statement coverage ensures that there are no more defects in the test object.

B.

100% statement coverage ensures that every transition between two statements has been executed at least once.

C.

100% statement coverage ensures that there are no unreachable program parts (dead code).

D.

100% statement coverage is a useful exit criterion for system testing.

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Questions 101

Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?

Options:

A.

Create test completion report

B.

Evaluate test basis and test object

C.

Assess testability of test object

D.

Define test environment requirements

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Questions 102

The following table shows six test cases TC01 to TC06 with their priorities and dependencies.

Schedule the test execution of the specified test case set according to the priorities and dependencies. Since the test time is very tight, the number of test cases should be minimized as much as possible, but all very important test cases must be included.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

TC04, TC05, and TC06 can be deleted.

B.

TC05 and TC06 can be deleted.

C.

TC04 and TC05 can be deleted.

D.

TC03, TC04 and TC05 can be deleted.

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Questions 103

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

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Questions 104

The statement: "Test activities should start in the early stages of the lifecycle, adhering to the testing principle of early testing” is relevant to which of the recognized software development models?

Options:

A.

Sequential development model.

B.

Iterative development model.

C.

Incremental development model.

D.

All the above

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Questions 105

Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.

B.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.

C.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.

D.

Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

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Questions 106

A minimum of 0 and a maximum of 40 points can be achieved in a Certified Tester Foundation examination. With a score of 26 points to 36 points inclusive, the exam is considered "passed", with 37 points or higher it is "passed with distinction" and with less than 26 points the examination is "not passed".

Which of the following sets of positive integers fully covers a 2-value boundary value analysis ? (No values from invalid equivalence classes should be specified).

Options:

A.

0, 24, 25, 35, 36, 37, 40

B.

0, 25, 26, 36, 37, 40

C.

0, 2, 25, 26, 27, 35, 36, 37

D.

25, 26, 27, 39, 40, 41

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Questions 107

Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

Options:

A.

Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code

B.

Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques

C.

Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems

D.

Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

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Questions 108

Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating the creation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test design and implementation tools are specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

B.

Static testing tools as they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

C.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/CD.

D.

Test execution and coverage tools facilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

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Questions 109

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Questions 110

What is typically NOT included in a test progress report?

Options:

A.

Information about test obstacles during a test period

B.

Statistics on the success of each tester in finding bugs

C.

Changed risks within the test period

D.

Test status in relation to defined test metrics (including exit criteria)

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Questions 111

Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess which of the following?

i. Progress against the planned schedule and budget.

II. Current quality of the test object.

Hi. Adequacy of the test approach.

iv. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives.

v. All the above.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

Only i and ii.

B.

Only i and iii.

C.

Only I, ii and iv.

D.

Only v.

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Questions 112

Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing includes formal tests from detailed lists of test conditions, allowing much repeatability

B.

Checklist-based testing may involve a list of tests based on what is important to the user as well as an understanding of why and how software fails

C.

Checklist-based testing, while popular, provides little consistency and few guidelines concerning test case development

D.

Checklist-based testing is restricted to non-functional testing, including usability, performance, and security test

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Questions 113

How can testing contribute to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

B.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

C.

Testing removes errors in the software.

D.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

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Questions 114

Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?

Options:

A.

Test logs that document the results of test execution.

B.

Automated test scripts used for test execution.

C.

A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.

D.

A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.

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Questions 115

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

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Questions 116

Match each objective to the correct test level

Objective:

A)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the system are as designed andspecified.

B)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the interfaces are as designed.

C)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functionalbehaviorsof the components are as designedand specified.

D)Establishing confidence in the quality of the systemas a whole.

Test Level:

1.Component testing.

2.Integration testing.

3.System testing.

4.Acceptance testing.

Options:

A.

A3, B2. C4. D1

B.

A2, B3, Cl, D4

C.

A3. B2. C1. D4

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Questions 117

Select the roles required in a formal review:

Options:

A.

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

B.

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

C.

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

D.

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

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Questions 118

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

Options:

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

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Questions 119

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

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Questions 120

Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

Options:

A.

Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

B.

It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

C.

It is the quadrant that component testing

D.

It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios

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Questions 121

Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

Which ONE of the following options organizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

Options:

A.

{TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}

B.

{TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}

C.

{TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}

D.

{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

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Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0)
Last Update: Nov 10, 2025
Questions: 406
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ISTQB-CTFL PDF + Engine

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