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IT-Risk-Fundamentals IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following would have the MOST impact on the accuracy and appropriateness of plans associated with business continuity and disaster recovery?

Options:

A.

Material updates to the incident response plan

B.

Data backups being moved to the cloud

C.

Changes to the business impact assessment (BIA)

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Questions 5

Which of the following would be considered a cyber-risk?

Options:

A.

A system that does not meet the needs of users

B.

A change in security technology

C.

Unauthorized use of information

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Questions 6

An enterprise has performed a risk assessment for the risk associated with the theft of sales team laptops while in transit. The results of the assessment concluded that the cost of mitigating the risk is higher than the potential loss. Which of the following is the BEST risk response strategy?

Options:

A.

Limit travel with laptops.

B.

Accept the inherent risk.

C.

Encrypt the sales team laptops.

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Questions 7

Which of the following MUST be established in order to manage l&T-related risk throughout the enterprise?

Options:

A.

An enterprise risk governance committee

B.

The enterprise risk universe

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

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Questions 8

A business impact analysis (BIA) generates the MOST benefit when:

Options:

A.

keeping impact criteria and cost data as generic as possible.

B.

measuring existing impact criteria exclusively in financial terms.

C.

using standardized frequency and impact metrics.

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Questions 9

What is the PRIMARY benefit of using generic technology terms in IT risk assessment reports to management?

Options:

A.

Simplicity in translating risk reports into other languages

B.

Clarity on the proper interpretation of reported risk

C.

Ease of promoting risk awareness with key stakeholders

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Questions 10

Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when developing effective risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Risk events that affect both financial and strategic objectives

B.

Previously materialized risk events impacting competitors

C.

Real and relevant potential risk events

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Questions 11

The PRIMARY goal of a business continuity plan (BCP) is to enable the enterprise to provide:

Options:

A.

a detailed list of hardware and software requirements to enable business functionality after an interruption.

B.

an immediate return of all business functionality after an interruption.

C.

a sufficient level of business functionality immediately after an interruption.

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Questions 12

Of the following, who is BEST suited to be responsible for continuous monitoring of risk?

Options:

A.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

Risk analysts

C.

Risk owners

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Questions 13

A key risk indicator (KRI) is PRIMARILY used for which of the following purposes?

Options:

A.

Optimizing risk management

B.

Predicting risk events

C.

Facilitating dashboard reporting

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Questions 14

Of the following, which stakeholder group is MOST often responsible for risk governance?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Business units

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Questions 15

Which of the following is a benefit of using a top-down approach when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Focus at the enterprise level makes it easier to achieve management support.

B.

The development process is simplified because it includes only I&T-related events.

C.

Identification and assignment of risk ownership for mitigation plans can be done more quickly.

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Questions 16

As part of the control monitoring process, frequent control exceptions are MOST likely to indicate:

Options:

A.

excessive costs associated with use of a control.

B.

misalignment with business priorities.

C.

high risk appetite throughout the enterprise.

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Questions 17

The PRIMARY reason for the implementation of additional security controls is to:

Options:

A.

avoid the risk of regulatory noncompliance.

B.

adhere to local data protection laws.

C.

manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels.

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Questions 18

Risk monitoring is MOST effective when it is conducted:

Options:

A.

following changes to the business's environment.

B.

before and after completing the risk treatment plan.

C.

throughout the risk treatment planning process.

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Questions 19

Risk maps can help to develop common profiles in order to identify which of the following?

Options:

A.

Risk that has clearly identified and assigned ownership

B.

Risk remediation activities that have sufficient budget

C.

Risk response activities that can be made more efficient

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the MAIN objective of governance?

Options:

A.

Creating controls throughout the entire organization

B.

Creating risk awareness at all levels of the organization

C.

Creating value through investments for the organization

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Questions 21

Which of the following is the MOST useful information to include in a risk report to indicate control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Whether the controls are functioning properly to reduce risk to acceptable levels

B.

Whether metrics to monitor control performance align with risk management standards

C.

Whether external audits confirm the same control deficiencies as reported by internal audit

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Questions 22

Which of the following are KEY considerations when selecting the best risk response for a given situation?

Options:

A.

Alignment with risk policy and industry standards

B.

Previous risk response strategies and action plans

C.

Cost of the response and capability to implement

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Questions 23

Which of the following is the BEST reason for an enterprise to avoid an absolute prohibition on risk?

Options:

A.

It may not be understood by executive management.

B.

It may lead to ineffective use of resources.

C.

It may not provide adequate support for budget increases.

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Questions 24

When selecting a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the KRI:

Options:

A.

supports established KPIs.

B.

produces multiple and varied results.

C.

is a reliable predictor of the risk event.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of effective asset valuation?

Options:

A.

It protects the enterprise from paying more for protection than the net worth of the asset.

B.

It assures that asset valuation is consistently applied to all assets across the enterprise.

C.

It ensures assets are linked to processes and classified based on business value.

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements on an organization's cybersecurity profile is BEST suited for presentation to management?

Options:

A.

The probability of a cyber attack varies between unlikely and very likely.

B.

Risk management believes the likelihood of a cyber attack is not imminent.

C.

Security measures are configured to minimize the risk of a cyber attack.

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Questions 27

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern with vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.

Threat mitigation

B.

Report size

C.

False positives

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Questions 28

Why is risk identification important to an organization?

Options:

A.

It provides a review of previous and likely threats to the enterprise.

B.

It ensures risk is recognized and the impact to business objectives is understood.

C.

It enables the risk register to detail potential impacts to an enterprise's business processes.

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Questions 29

Detailed risk management reports should be targeted to a specific audience based on:

Options:

A.

need to know.

B.

industry benchmarks.

C.

seniority levels in the enterprise.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is MOST likely to promote ethical and open communication of risk management activities at the executive level?

Options:

A.

Recommending risk tolerance levels to the business

B.

Expressing risk results in financial terms

C.

Increasing the frequency of risk status reports

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Questions 31

A risk practitioner has been tasked with analyzing new risk events added to the risk register. Which of the following analysis methods would BEST enable the risk practitioner to minimize ambiguity and subjectivity?

Options:

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Delphi method

C.

Brainstorming

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Questions 32

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a cost-benefit analysis as part of a risk response business case?

Options:

A.

To determine if the reduction in risk is sufficient to justify the cost of implementing the response

B.

To determine the future resource requirements and funding needed to monitor the related risk

C.

To calculate the total return on investment (ROI) over time and benefit to enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Questions 33

Which of the following is the objective of a frequency analysis?

Options:

A.

To determine how often risk mitigation strategies should be evaluated and updated within a specific timeframe

B.

To determine how many risk scenarios will impact business objectives over a given period of time

C.

To determine how often a particular risk scenario might be expected to occur during a specified period of time

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Questions 34

The use of risk scenarios to guide senior management through a rapidly changing market environment is considered a key risk management

Options:

A.

benefit.

B.

incentive.

C.

capability.

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Questions 35

To establish an enterprise risk appetite, an organization should:

Options:

A.

normalize risk taxonomy across the organization.

B.

aggregate risk statements for all lines of business.

C.

establish risk tolerance for each business unit.

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Exam Name: IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam
Last Update: Feb 22, 2025
Questions: 118
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