SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2025 Questions and Answers

If cadets are using company phone numbers to make unsolicited calls, and the logs confirm the numbers are not being spoofed, it suggests that the SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) server's security settings might be weak. This could allow unauthorized access or exploitation of the company's telephony services, potentially leading to misuse by unauthorized individuals.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, especially on SIP security and common vulnerabilities​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Theright to be forgotten, as outlined in regulations such as theGeneral Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), requires organizations topermanently delete an individual's personal dataupon request, unless there is a legal or contractual obligation to retain it.

Purging personally identifiable attributes (A)removes some identifying data but does not fully satisfy the request.

Encrypting the data (B)does not remove it, and the data is still accessible with the decryption key.

Obfuscating data (D)makes data unreadable but does not permanently remove it.

To comply withthe right to be forgotten, organizations mustremove all of the person's dataunless an exception applies.

Detailed Explanation:A version control tool, such as Git, tracks changes made to code, maintains history, and allows developers to manage and revert to earlier versions when needed. This ensures accountability and control over modifications. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Version Control and Documentation"​​.

The most significant vulnerability concern for end-of-life (EOL) hardware is that vendors stop providing patches and updates. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights that unsupported hardware and software no longer receive security fixes, leaving known vulnerabilities permanently unpatched. This creates an expanding attack surface that adversaries can easily exploit.

Once hardware reaches EOL status, newly discovered vulnerabilities will remain unaddressed, increasing the likelihood of compromise. This is especially dangerous for systems exposed to networks or handling sensitive data, where exploitation can lead to data breaches, lateral movement, or service disruption.

Option A relates to disposal risks, not active vulnerabilities. Option B is a logistical issue, not a security vulnerability. Option C is a compatibility concern, not a direct vulnerability.

Because unpatched systems are inherently vulnerable and cannot be secured through updates, the correct answer is D: The vendor may stop providing patches and updates.

A tabletop exercise is the most effective way to quickly assess a cybersecurity team’s readiness to respond to a threat scenario. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 describes tabletop exercises as discussion-based simulations where incident response team members walk through a realistic scenario to evaluate procedures, decision-making, communication, and coordination. These exercises are specifically designed to be conducted in a short timeframe while still providing meaningful insight into preparedness.

Executing a tabletop exercise allows management to observe how the team identifies threats, escalates incidents, assigns roles, and follows the incident response plan. Documenting performance results helps formalize findings, identify gaps, and improve playbooks and procedures without the complexity of a live incident or full-scale simulation.

Option A is informal and does not test real-time decision-making. Option B focuses on vulnerability discovery, not response readiness. Option D can be effective but is time-consuming and not suited for rapid assessment.

Therefore, C: Execute a tabletop exercise and document the performance results is the correct answer.

AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm widely used to protect data at rest by converting plaintext into ciphertext that is unreadable without the proper key. It provides strong confidentiality and is a standard for encrypting stored data.

TLS 1.2 (A) secures data in transit, not at rest. Masking (C) obscures data but typically for display or limited use and is reversible. Salting (D) is used alongside hashing to protect passwords and data integrity but does not encrypt data.

Encryption with AES-256 is recognized as a best practice for securing stored data in the Security+ Cryptography and General Security Concepts domains【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detailed Explanation:Privileged Access Management (PAM) solutions enhance security by enforcing strong authentication, rotation of credentials, and access control for shared accounts. This is especially critical in scenarios like SSO failures. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Privileged Access and Identity Management"​​.

A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.3, Web Application Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

When multiple Wireless Access Points (WAPs) are using similar frequencies with high power settings, it can cause channel overlap, leading to interference and connectivity issues. This is likely the reason why mobile users are unable to access the internet in the lobby. Evaluating and adjusting the channel settings on the WAPs to avoid overlap is crucial to resolving the connectivity problems.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domain on Wireless and Mobile Security, which covers WLAN deployment considerations​​.

"Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are a feature of Microsoft Windows Active Directory that allow administrators to centrally manage and configure settings across multiple systems in an efficient manner. When a vulnerability such as SMBv1 (Server Message Block version 1) is identified onmultiple servers, GPOs can be used to disable this outdated and insecure protocol across all affected systems simultaneously. By creating a GPO to enforce a policy that disables SMBv1, the organization can ensure consistent remediation without manually configuring each server individually, making it the most efficient solution for domain-joined environments."

Deploying a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution allows for efficient log aggregation, correlation, and analysis across an organization’s infrastructure, providing real-time security insights.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

The correct answer is Attack surface because opening multiple common service ports unnecessarily increases the number of potential entry points an attacker can target. In the Security+ SY0-701 exam objectives, the attack surface is defined as the total number of exposed interfaces, services, ports, protocols, and access points that an attacker could attempt to exploit. Each open port corresponds to a listening service, and every exposed service represents an opportunity for reconnaissance, exploitation, or abuse.

In this scenario, the business intends to open ports for FTP, SSH, SMTP, HTTP, and HTTPS without clearly limiting access. While some of these services may be required, opening all of them broadly—especially to a screened subnet—significantly expands the attack surface. If any of these services are misconfigured, unpatched, or vulnerable, attackers could exploit them to gain unauthorized access. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes minimizing exposed services as a foundational defensive strategy, often referred to as reducing attack surface area.

Option C, least privilege, is related but not the best answer. Least privilege focuses on granting users or systems only the minimum access required, whereas this question specifically concerns exposed network services rather than access rights. Option A, secure access service edge (SASE), is a cloud-based architecture model and is unrelated to basic firewall port exposure decisions. Option D, separation of duties, applies to role and responsibility distribution, not network exposure.

By advising against opening multiple common ports, the consultant is recommending a reduction in exposed services to limit opportunities for attack. This aligns directly with SY0-701 guidance on secure network design, firewall hardening, and minimizing externally accessible services.

In summary, limiting open ports reduces the organization’s attack surface, making Attack surface the correct and best answer.

Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491

Encryption is a method of transforming data in a way that makes it unreadable without a secret key necessary to decrypt the data back into plaintext. Encryption is one of the most common and effective ways to protect data at rest, as it prevents unauthorized access, modification, or theft of the data. Encryption can be applied to different types of data at rest, such as block storage, object storage, databases, archives, and so on. Hashing, tokenization, and segmentation are not methods of rendering data at rest unreadable, but rather of protecting data in other ways. Hashing is a one-way function that generates a fixed-length output, called a hash or digest, from an input, such that the input cannot be recovered from the output. Hashing is used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data, but not to encrypt it. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes, called tokens, that have no meaning or value on their own. Tokenization is used to reduce the exposure and compliance scope of sensitive data, but not to encrypt it. Segmentation is a technique that divides a network or a system into smaller, isolated units, called segments, that have different levels of access and security. Segmentation is used to limit the attack surface and contain the impact of a breach, but not to encrypt data at rest. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, pages 77-781; Protecting data at rest - Security Pillar3

RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario asRBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1

Orchestration is the process of automating multiple tasks across different systems and applications. It can help save time and reduce human error by executing predefined workflows and scripts. In this case, the systems administrator can use orchestration to create accounts for a large number of end users without having to manually enter their information and assign permissions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457 1

The log entries clearly show an attacker attempting to access sensitive system files by manipulating the filename parameter. The use of ../../../ is a classic indicator of a directory traversal attack, also called path traversal. This technique is used to move outside the intended web directory and access restricted locations on the server’s filesystem.

In this case, the attacker is attempting to read:

/etc/passwd — contains user account information

/etc/shadow — contains hashed password entries and is even more sensitive

The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam describes directory traversal as an attack where unvalidated user input allows navigation to system directories, often using sequences like ../ to bypass file path restrictions. This is exactly what is shown in the logs.

File injection (A) would involve inserting malicious files or code, not reading system files.

Privilege escalation (B) requires exploiting a system to gain higher privileges, not just reading files.

Cookie forgery (D) involves manipulating session cookies and does not match the observed behavior.

Because the attacker is using path traversal patterns to access protected files, the correct answer is C. Directory traversal.

Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data, such as credit card information, with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that can be used in place of the actual data. This technique is particularly useful in securely storing payment information because the token can be safely stored and transmitted without exposing the original credit card number.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Data Protection​.

Change management is the formal process designed to control, document, approve, and track modifications to systems, internal processes, assets, and security controls. This control mechanism helps prevent unauthorized or unintended changes that could introduce vulnerabilities or disrupt operations.

Playbooks are documented procedures for responding to incidents, incident response manages security incidents, and acceptable use policies define acceptable user behavior but do not directly control changes.

By enforcing proper change management, organizations maintain the integrity and security of their infrastructure, which is a critical topic covered in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

When the government bans a vendor, the legal concern is sanctions—laws that restrict purchasing, using, or importing products from certain companies or countries. The general counsel’s job is to ensure the organization is not violating federal restrictions, export controls, trade compliance laws, or sanctions lists such as OFAC or government procurement bans.

Security+ SY0-701 notes that legal and regulatory compliance is a critical part of risk management, especially when handling prohibited vendors or technologies. Continued use of banned devices could expose the organization to legal penalties, fines, or federal investigation.

Data sovereignty (B) refers to data storage location laws, not hardware bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software, not network hardware.

Therefore, the general counsel’s primary concern is A: Sanctions.

To efficiently identify where data was exfiltrated from and where it was sent, the best action is to analyze firewall and network logs for unusually large outbound data transfers. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that network-level telemetry provides the most direct evidence of data exfiltration, including source IPs, destination IPs or domains, ports, protocols, timestamps, and data volume.

Firewall and flow logs can quickly reveal which internal systems transmitted large quantities of data externally and identify the attacker’s destination infrastructure. This approach is efficient because it focuses directly on the movement of data rather than preliminary or secondary indicators.

IPS/IDS logs (B) are more useful for detecting reconnaissance or intrusion attempts, not confirming data theft paths. Endpoint and application logs (C) may help identify tools used but are less efficient for mapping data movement. External vulnerability scans (D) identify weaknesses, not exfiltration activity.

Therefore, the most efficient action is A: Analyze firewall and network logs for large outbound traffic.

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397.

Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of using code and automation to manage and provision cloud resources, such as servers, networks, storage, and applications. IaC allows for easy deployment, scalability, consistency, and repeatability of cloud environments. IaC is also a key component of DevSecOps, which integrates security into the development and operations processes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts, page 294.

Salting involves adding a unique value (salt) to each password before hashing it. This means that even if two users have the same password, the added salts ensure their hash values are different. This protects against attacks that exploit identical hash values, such as rainbow table attacks.

Shadow IT refers to the use of information technology systems, devices, software, applications, and services without explicit IT department approval. This is the most likely cause of introducing vulnerabilities on a corporate network by deploying unapproved software, as such software may not have been vetted for security compliance, increasing the risk of vulnerabilities.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The concept of Shadow IT is discussed as a significant risk due to the introduction of unapproved and potentially vulnerable software into the corporate network​​.

Risk appetiterefers to thelevel of risk an organization is willing to acceptbefore implementing security measures. When expanding access controls, the company must assess how much risk is acceptable in terms ofdata exposure, unauthorized access, and compliance obligations.

Detailed Explanation:

Corrective controls, such as auditing and versioning, help prevent unauthorized changes to financial data, ensuring data integrity and compliance with regulations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Controls for Financial Systems"​​.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) solution is the most suitable option for securing an organization that has adopted a cloud-first strategy and does not have an on-premises IT infrastructure. CASBs provide visibility and control over shadow IT services, enforce security policies, and protect data across cloud services.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of cloud security and managing risks associated with shadow IT​​.

SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge. It is a cloud-based service that combines network and security functions into a single integrated solution. SASE can help reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit by providing secure and optimized access to the data center and cloud applications for remote employees. SASE can also monitor and enforce security policies on the remote employee internet traffic, regardless of their location or device. SASE can offer benefits such as lower costs, improved performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to traditional VPN solutions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457-458 1

 A business email compromise (BEC) attack is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to company funds or sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as an executive, a vendor, or a client, and requests a fraudulent payment, a wire transfer, or confidential data. The attacker often uses social engineering techniques, such as urgency, pressure, or familiarity, to convince the victim to comply with the request12.

In this scenario, option A describes a possible BEC attack, where an employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display field of the email. The email may look like it is coming from the executive, but the actual email address may be spoofed or compromised. The attacker may claim that the gift cards are needed for a business purpose, such as rewarding employees or clients, and ask the employee to purchase them and send the codes. This is a common tactic used by BEC attackers to steal money from unsuspecting victims34.

Option B describes a possible ransomware attack, where malicious software encrypts the files on a device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Option C describes a possible credential harvesting attack, where an attacker tries to obtain the login information of a privileged account by posing as a legitimate authority. Option D describes a possible phishing attack, where an attacker tries to lure the victim to a fake website that mimics the company’s email portal and capture their credentials. These are all types of cyberattacks, but they are not examples of BEC attacks. References = 1: Business Email Compromise - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.2 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide 3: Business Email Compromise: The 12 Billion Dollar Scam 4: TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy

Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373

Aprocedureprovides step-by-step instructions on how to complete a specific security task, ensuring consistency and accuracy. Unlike policies, which define high-level security expectations,procedures are detailed and operational. For example, apassword reset procedurewould outline the exact steps IT support must follow when assisting users.

Policy: Defines security objectives and rules (e.g., "All passwords must be complex").

Standard: Specifies required technologies or configurations.

Guideline: Provides recommendations but is not mandatory.

Procedure: Gives exact instructions to perform tasks.

Data sovereignty concerns the laws and governance that apply to data at rest outside of a country’s borders. It refers to the legal implications and regulatory controls over where data is stored geographically.

Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker’s IP address, reset ismith’s password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1

Risk appetite refers to the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. In this scenario, the security engineer is concerned that the timeframe for implementing a new application does not allow for sufficient cybersecurity due diligence. This reflects a situation where the organization’s risk appetite might be too high if it proceeds without the necessary security checks.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of risk management and understanding organizational risk appetite​​.

An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user’s awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user’s knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user’s skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Endpoint Detection and Response – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, video at 5:30; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.

Port security is the best solution to prevent unauthorized devices, like a visitor's laptop, from connecting to the company’s network. Port security can limit the number of devices that can connect to a network switch port and block unauthorized MAC addresses, effectively stopping unauthorized access attempts.

Web application firewall (WAF) protects against web-based attacks, not unauthorized network access.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) ensures encrypted communication but does not manage physical network access.

Virtual Private Network (VPN) secures remote connections but does not control access through physical network ports​​​.

The correct answer is Zero Trust because it directly aligns with all three stated requirements: creating secure zones, enforcing consistent access control policies across the organization, and reducing the overall threat surface. In the Security+ SY0-701 framework, Zero Trust is a modern security architecture model based on the principle of never trust, always verify. It assumes that threats may already exist inside or outside the network and therefore requires continuous validation of users, devices, and sessions.

Zero Trust architectures segment environments into secure zones, often using microsegmentation, to prevent lateral movement by attackers. This directly reduces the scope of threats by limiting what an attacker can access even if one component is compromised. Enforcing company-wide access control policies is another core Zero Trust principle, as access decisions are centrally governed and based on identity, device posture, context, and least privilege rather than network location.

Option B, AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting), is an access control framework, but it does not inherently define secure zones or reduce threat scope through segmentation. Option C, Non-repudiation, ensures actions cannot be denied later and is primarily related to auditing and accountability, not access control architecture. Option D, CIA, refers to confidentiality, integrity, and availability—fundamental security goals rather than an implementation model.

The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes Zero Trust as a strategic approach to minimizing attack surfaces, enforcing least privilege, and protecting enterprise resources regardless of user location or network boundaries. By continuously validating access and restricting trust, Zero Trust architectures significantly reduce risk and improve resilience against both internal and external threats.

In summary, the combination of secure zones, centralized access control enforcement, and reduced threat exposure clearly indicates the implementation of a Zero Trust architecture.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) protects individual devices by monitoring and preventing malicious activity directly on the host. It is ideal for protecting traveling employees’ devices outside the corporate network.

Isolation (A) and segmentation (B) apply to networks, and ACL (Access Control List) (C) restricts network traffic but does not provide host-level protection.

HIPS is emphasized in Security Operations for endpoint protection【6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

The correct answer is having privileged access to client systems and becoming a target for attackers, which directly reflects a major risk discussed in the Security+ SY0-701 domain of Security Program Management and Oversight, specifically within third-party and supply chain risk management. Supply chain service providers often require elevated or privileged access to an organization’s systems to perform maintenance, monitoring, software updates, or support services. This level of access significantly expands the organization’s attack surface.

When a vendor has privileged access, attackers may target the service provider as an indirect path into the primary organization. This type of compromise is especially dangerous because malicious activity may appear legitimate, using trusted credentials and authorized connections. The Security+ study guide emphasizes that third-party compromises can bypass traditional perimeter defenses, making them particularly difficult to detect and contain. As a result, vendors can unintentionally introduce vulnerabilities even if the organization’s internal security controls are strong.

The other options do not directly introduce a security vulnerability. Delayed hardware shipments affect availability and project timelines but do not create a security weakness. Outsourcing customer service may introduce privacy or compliance concerns, but it does not inherently create a technical vulnerability unless combined with poor access controls. Failing to encrypt internal databases is an internal security failure, not a supply chain issue caused by a service provider.

From a Security+ perspective, managing this risk requires strong contractual controls, least-privilege access, continuous monitoring, and audit rights. Organizations must treat vendors as extensions of their own environment. Therefore, privileged access held by a supply chain provider—and the increased likelihood of that provider being targeted—is the most accurate explanation of how a supply chain service provider can introduce a security vulnerability.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The described activity—visiting a website and downloading publicly accessible content—is a classic example of passive reconnaissance. Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information about a target without interacting with its internal systems or generating traffic that could be detected by security monitoring tools.

According to SY0-701, passive recon uses open-source intelligence (OSINT), such as:

Public websites

DNS records

News articles

Metadata

Public document repositories

The key distinction is that passive reconnaissance does not probe the system for vulnerabilities, nor does it send active scanning traffic.

Vulnerability scanning (B) requires active probing. Unknown environment testing (A) applies to black-box testing but still may involve active scanning. Due diligence (C) refers to risk assessment or compliance reviews, not technical reconnaissance.

Therefore, downloading the website’s content is a non-intrusive information-gathering technique, perfectly matching passive reconnaissance as defined in the exam materials under Threats, Vulnerabilities, Attack Vectors, and Pen Testing Phases.

Failure to comply with right-to-be-forgotten (data privacy) regulations can lead to significant fines imposed by regulatory authorities like GDPR enforcers. Such laws require companies to delete personal data upon user request.

Data breaches (B) are security incidents; revenue loss (C) and blackmail (D) may occur indirectly but fines are the direct legal consequence.

Regulatory compliance and consequences are critical topics in Security Program Management【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

To determine whether the connection was successful after a user clicked on a link in a phishing email, the most relevant log source to analyze would be the network logs. These logs would provide information on outbound and inbound traffic, allowing the analyst to see if the user’s system connected to the remote server specified in the phishing link. Network logs can includedetails such as IP addresses, domains accessed, and the success or failure of connections, which are crucial for understanding the impact of the phishing attempt.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Incident Response​.

Detailed Explanation:Proper data sanitization ensures that sensitive data is securely erased from storage devices, preventing unauthorized access or recovery when the devices are disposed of or reused. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Data Sanitization and Disposal Methods"​​.

The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company’s policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441

The ability to automatically generate WAF (Web Application Firewall) policies during application deployment is a characteristic of Infrastructure as Code (IaC). IaC allows infrastructure components—such as firewalls, WAF policies, load balancers, and security groups—to be defined, version-controlled, and deployed programmatically.

According to Security+ SY0-701, IaC enhances DevSecOps workflows by embedding security controls directly into deployment pipelines, ensuring consistent, repeatable, and automated application protection. This reduces human error, eliminates configuration drift, and ensures that every new application instance is deployed with the correct WAF rules already in place.

IoT (B) involves connected devices.

IoC (C) refers to Indicators of Compromise.

IaaS (D) provides cloud infrastructure but does not itself automate security policy generation.

Thus, A: IaC is the correct concept enabling automated WAF policy creation.

Virtualization (D)allows multiple systems and services to be hosted onfewer physical machines, therebyreducing the total number of physical devicesand consequently thehardware attack surface. This also allows for better patching, monitoring, and control.

The fewer devices you manage physically, the fewer entry points there are for attackers to exploit hardware-level vulnerabilities.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is the technology required for automating infrastructure deployment. IaC allows organizations to define and deploy servers, networks, containers, and cloud resources using machine-readable configuration files rather than manual configuration. This leads to faster deployment, consistent environments, repeatability, version control, and lower human error.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights IaC as a foundational component of DevOps and modern cloud operations. It supports automated provisioning through tools such as Terraform, Ansible, CloudFormation, and Puppet. IaC also enhances security by enabling automated compliance checks and standardized hardened configurations.

IaaS (B) is a cloud service model, not an automation mechanism. IoC (C) refers to Indicators of Compromise used in threat intelligence. IoT (D) refers to Internet-connected devices and is unrelated to infrastructure deployment.

Therefore, IaC is the required technology for automated, repeatable, secure infrastructure deployments.

The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is a technology designed to check the revocation status of digital certificates in real-time without requiring the client to download entire revocation lists. Unlike Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are periodically updated and can be large, OCSP queries an OCSP responder to receive the status of a specific certificate.

OCSP is considered passive verification because it allows clients to check a certificate's current validity status on-demand without maintaining local copies of revocation data. The OCSP responder returns whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or expired.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is hardware for secure key storage, and Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request for certificate issuance; neither is used for verifying certificate expiration status.

The differences and roles of OCSP and CRLs are thoroughly covered in the Cryptography and PKI chapter of the SY0-701, where OCSP is highlighted as the more efficient and real-time method to verify certificate status passively【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3. References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?

Risk identificationis the first step in the risk management process, where potential threats and vulnerabilities are analyzed to understand their impact on an organization. This includesidentifying assets, evaluating threats, and assessing potential vulnerabilities.

Risk mitigation: Reducing risk by implementing controls.

Risk treatment: Determining how to handle identified risks.

Risk monitoring and review: Ongoing evaluation of risk controls.

To identify the impacted host in a command-and-control (C2) server incident, the following logs should be analyzed:

DHCP logs: These logs record IP address assignments. By reviewing DHCP logs, an organization can determine which host was assigned a specific IP address during the time of the attack.

Firewall logs: Firewall logs will show traffic patterns, including connections to external C2 servers. Analyzing these logs helps to identify the IP address and port numbers of the communicating host.

Application, Authentication, and Database logs are less relevant in this context because they focus on internal processes and authentication events rather than network traffic involved in a C2 attack​​​.

Application allow listing is the most effective technique to prevent bloatware, unauthorized software, or unnecessary applications from running on devices. Allow lists work by permitting only pre-approved, trusted applications to execute, blocking everything else by default. This is a recommended best practice in Security+ SY0-701 for reducing attack surface, preventing malware, and maintaining lean, hardened system images.

Bloatware often comes pre-installed on devices or is unintentionally installed by users. An allow list ensures only authorized applications required for business functions can run, thereby eliminating bloatware risks.

Disabling ports/protocols (A) hardens network access but does not prevent software installation. Default password changes (C) improve authentication security but are unrelated to software control. Access control permissions (D) restrict who can access what but do not prevent installation of unnecessary apps.

Thus, the correct answer is B: Application allow list.

A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack. The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 and 223 1

Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

 Sanitization is the process of removing sensitive data from a storage device or a system before it is disposed of or reused. Sanitization can be done by using software tools or hardware devices that overwrite the data with random patterns or zeros, making it unrecoverable. Sanitization is different from destruction, which is the physical damage of the storage device to render it unusable. Sanitization is also different from enumeration, which is the identification of network resources or devices, and inventory, which is the tracking of assets and their locations. The policy of securely wiping hard drives before sending decommissioned systems to recycling is an example of sanitization, as it ensures that no confidential data can be retrieved from the recycled devices. References = Secure Data Destruction – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.7, video at 1:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387.

A warm site offers a compromise between cost and recovery speed. It includes hardware and network infrastructure partially configured, allowing quicker recovery than a cold site but at lower cost than a hot site.

Hot sites (A) enable rapid recovery but at high cost. Cold sites (B) are low cost but slow to recover. Manual (C) refers to manual processes, typically slower.

Warm sites balance recovery time and cost in disaster recovery planning【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Alerts generated by SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) tools are detective controls, as they identify and notify about suspicious activities but do not prevent or correct the events themselves.

Preventive controls stop incidents before they occur, corrective controls remediate issues, and compensating controls are alternatives used when primary controls aren’t feasible.

Detective controls are foundational in Security Operations for incident detection and response【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Mitigate is the risk management strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk. If a legacy application is critical to business operations and there are preventative controls that are not yet implemented, the enterprise should adopt the mitigate strategy first to address the existing vulnerabilities and gaps in the application. This could involve applying patches, updates, or configuration changes to the application, or adding additional layers of security controls around the application. Accept, transfer, and avoid are other risk management strategies, but they are not the best options for this scenario. Accept means acknowledging the risk and accepting the consequences without taking any action. Transfer means shifting the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. Avoid means eliminating the risk by removing the source or changing the process. These strategies may not be feasible or desirable for a legacy application that is critical to business operations and has no preventative controls in place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; A Risk-Based Framework for Legacy System Migration and Deprecation2

 An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.

An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics. Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.

An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.

A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.

Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.

References =  https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/observability/application-log/

https://owasp.org/www-project-proactive-controls/v3/en/c9-security-logging

Accounting logs user activities such as log-ins and usage duration, which is part of the AAA framework (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting).

=================

Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is the technology best suited for preventing remote users from accessing malicious URLs. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 framework, SASE integrates cloud-native security capabilities such as DNS filtering, secure web gateways, CASB, and URL categorization, all delivered inline. This means every URL request from a remote user is checked in real time for reputation, content, and category before access is granted.

This solution is specifically designed for remote workforces because security enforcement happens in the cloud, regardless of user location—eliminating reliance on on-premise proxies or VPN routing. SASE also enables consistent policy application and real-time enforcement across distributed networks.

A VPN (A) only encrypts traffic; it does not perform URL reputation checks. IDS (C) detects malicious activity but does not block URL access. SD-WAN (D) optimizes WAN routing but is not focused on content filtering or URL reputation.

Therefore, SASE is the correct and most effective solution for inline URL inspection and preventing remote users from reaching malicious sites.

Typosquatting(also known asURL hijacking) is a type of attack where cybercriminals register domain names similar to legitimate sites but with slight misspellings (e.g., comptiatraning.com instead of comptiatraining.com). Attackers use these fake sites tosteal credentials or distribute malware. Since the user manually entered the URL and reached an unexpected website,this strongly indicates a typosquatting attack.

A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation even in the event of a failure or disruption. A high-availability network must consider the following factors12:

Ease of recovery: This refers to the ability of the network to restore normal functionality quickly and efficiently after a failure or disruption. Ease of recovery can be achieved by implementing backup and restore procedures, redundancy and failover mechanisms, fault tolerance and resilience, and disaster recovery plans.

Attack surface: This refers to the amount of exposure and vulnerability of the network to potential threats and attacks. Attack surface can be reduced by implementing security controls such as firewalls, encryption, authentication, access control, segmentation, and hardening.

The other options are not directly related to high-availability network design:

Ability to patch: This refers to the process of updating and fixing software components to address security issues, bugs, or performance improvements. Ability to patch is important for maintaining the security and functionality of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.

Physical isolation: This refers to the separation of network components or devices from other networks or physical environments. Physical isolation can enhance the security and performance of the network, but it can also reduce the availability and accessibility of the network resources.

Responsiveness: This refers to the speed and quality of the network’s performance and service delivery. Responsiveness can be measured by metrics such as latency, throughput, jitter, and packet loss. Responsiveness is important for ensuring customer satisfaction and user experience, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.

Extensible authentication: This refers to the ability of the network to support multiple and flexible authentication methods and protocols. Extensible authentication can improve the security and convenience of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor Messer.

A diagram of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Step 1: Understand Requirements & Security Principles

Requirements:

Customer-facing payment application (PCI DSS compliance applies)

Hosted on third-party cloud (e.g., AWS)

Must segment public-facing and internal resources

Needs to be scalable and resilient

Must have strong security controls

Step 2: Design the High-Level Network Layout

Core Components:

VPC (Virtual Private Cloud): Isolates your environment from other tenants in the cloud.

Subnets:

Public subnet: For resources that must communicate with the internet.

Private subnet: For internal resources, NOT directly exposed to the internet.

Step 3: Place Resources in Appropriate Subnets

Public Subnet:

Internet-facing Load Balancer (LB): Distributes traffic to application servers.

Web Application Firewall (WAF): Protects against web exploits.

Autoscaling Instances: EC2 (or VM) servers running your web front-end, automatically scaling as traffic grows.

Private Subnet:

Application servers: Back-end logic, not exposed to internet directly.

Database: Sensitive data storage, only accessible by application servers.

Internal Load Balancer: Manages traffic among app servers.

WAF: Can be used internally as well for defense-in-depth.

Step 4: Add Connectivity and Security Controls

Internet Gateway: Allows resources in public subnet to communicate with the internet.

NAT Gateway: Allows outbound internet traffic from private subnet without exposing private IPs.

Security Groups: Firewalls at the instance level; allow only necessary traffic (e.g., LB to web server, web server to DB).

Network ACLs: Subnet-level firewalls for additional control.

Step 5: Network Diagram Explanation (Based on Your Images)

Public Subnet (Top Layer)

Load Balancer

Accepts HTTPS traffic from customers.

Sends only necessary HTTP/HTTPS to web servers in public subnet.

WAF (Web Application Firewall)

Sits in front of Load Balancer.

Filters malicious requests (SQLi, XSS, etc.).

Autoscaling Group

Multiple web servers for redundancy and scalability.

Placed in public subnet to respond to traffic spikes.

Private Subnet (Bottom Layer)

Application Servers

Receive requests from public subnet’s load balancer.

Not directly exposed to the internet.

Database

Only accessible from application servers, never public.

Security groups restrict all inbound traffic except from app servers.

Internal Load Balancer

Balances requests to application servers.

Step 6: Flow of Data (Step-by-Step)

Client -> Internet Gateway -> WAF -> Load Balancer (Public Subnet):Customers initiate connections to your app over the internet.

Load Balancer -> Autoscaling Web Servers (Public Subnet):Load balancer routes requests to available web servers.

Web Servers -> Application Logic (Private Subnet):Web servers pass necessary requests to the internal application servers.

App Servers -> Database (Private Subnet):Application servers query/update customer payment data in the database.

Outbound (NAT Gateway):App servers may need to access updates or external APIs—use NAT Gateway for secure outbound connections.

Step 7: Security Best Practices

Security Groups: Only allow necessary ports (e.g., 443 for HTTPS to LB, 3306 for MySQL between app server and DB).

Network ACLs: Add another layer of subnet-level restrictions.

Encryption: Use HTTPS for all external connections, encrypt data at rest and in transit (TLS, disk encryption).

IAM Roles/Policies: Principle of least privilege for accessing resources.

Monitoring/Logging: Enable VPC flow logs, cloud service logs, and application logging.

Patch Management: Automate patching for OS and applications.

Backups: Regular, secure backups of critical data.

Step 8: Compliance Considerations

For payment applications (PCI DSS):

Isolate cardholder data environment (CDE).

Strong access controls (multi-factor authentication, role separation).

Regular vulnerability assessments and penetration testing.

Retain logs for auditing.

Step 9: Draw the Architecture (Summary)

Internet Gateway: Allows inbound/outbound internet access.

Public Subnet: WAF, Load Balancer, Autoscaling group.

Private Subnet: App servers, DB, internal LB.

NAT Gateway: Outbound access for private resources.

Security Groups/ACLs: Control all traffic flows.

Monitoring/Logging: Enabled at all levels.

Bonus: Sample Security Group Rules

Web Server (Public Subnet):

Inbound: 443 (HTTPS) from Internet

Outbound: 80/443 to App Servers

App Server (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 80/443 from Web Servers

Outbound: 3306 (MySQL) to Database

Database (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 3306 from App Servers

Outbound: None (unless replication required)

References to Security+ Domains

1.0 General Security Concepts: Principle of least privilege, defense in depth.

2.0 Threats, Vulnerabilities, Mitigations: WAF, segmentation, patching.

3.0 Security Architecture: Network segmentation, secure design.

4.0 Security Operations: Monitoring, logging, response.

5.0 Security Program Management: Compliance, policy.

A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the organization’s network. The attack aims to infect users’ computers and gain access to a connected corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks, which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users’ devices1

In this scenario, the compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the company’s network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware. The malware then infected the employees’ computers and propagated to the network.

References1: Watering Hole Attacks: Stages, Examples, Risk Factors & Defense …

Jailbreaking is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) program. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the manufacturer’s or the carrier’s restrictions on a device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, to gain root access and install unauthorized or custom software. Jailbreaking can compromise the security of the device and the data stored on it, as well as expose it to malware, viruses, or hacking. Jailbreaking can also violate the warranty and the terms of service of the device, and make it incompatible with the company’s security policies and standards. Therefore, a company setting up a BYOD program should prohibit jailbreaking and enforce device compliance and encryption. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 76. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4, page 11.

You want to place these technologies to reduce attack surface and enable secure protocols for the web architecture.

Suggested placements (following typical best practices for web architectures):

First node after Internet (Inbound Traffic Point):

FirewallControls and filters incoming traffic from the internet to block unwanted access.

Next node (Internal Traffic Control):

RouterRoutes packets inside the network and can apply some filtering.

Next layer (Between router and web infrastructure):

WAF (Web Application Firewall)Protects web servers from attacks like XSS, SQL injection, CSRF, directory traversal by inspecting HTTP/HTTPS traffic.

Web Servers:

Web serverHosts the application.

PKI Certificate:

Applied on the web server or WAF to enable HTTPS and secure protocols (TLS).

Part 2:

Detailed Explanation:Swipe cards and biometric scanners are commonly used to control on-premises access due to their reliability and ability to restrict unauthorized entry. Swipe cards provide physical access control, while biometric scanners ensure identity verification. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 1: General Security Concepts, Section: "Physical Security Controls"​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Key escrow is the process of storing encryption keys (or copies of them) with a trusted third party so data can be recovered if the primary decryption key is lost. In Security+ SY0-701, escrow is emphasized as a required safeguard for organizations that rely heavily on encryption, especially for regulated data or systems requiring guaranteed recoverability.

A CSR (A) is a Certificate Signing Request and does not store keys. Salting (B) is used with hashing to prevent password attacks and does not assist in data recovery. A root of trust (C) ensures secure hardware initialization but does not store backup decryption keys.

Key escrow directly addresses scenarios where encryption keys are misplaced, corrupted, deleted, or lost due to employee departure or system failure. Without escrow, encrypted data could become permanently inaccessible.

Thus, the correct answer is Escrow, the only mechanism specifically designed to allow recovery when decryption keys are unavailable.

A honeytoken is a form of deception technology in which a fake asset (such as credentials, files, or database records) is planted in a system or network to detect unauthorized access or malicious activity. The fake password stored in a hidden spreadsheet, with monitoring for access, is a classic example of a honeytoken. It is not an interactive system (like a honeypot or honeynet) but rather a marker or tripwire intended to alert the security team to suspicious behavior. This method helps identify attackers and their methods early in the intrusion process.

Ongoing vendor monitoring is a critical component of third-party risk management (TPRM) and focuses on continuously validating that vendors maintain required security controls throughout the lifecycle of the relationship. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, the most effective ongoing monitoring method is conducting assessments to verify compliance with security requirements. These assessments may include periodic security questionnaires, audits, penetration test results, SOC reports, or compliance attestations that are independently validated.

Option A, requiring a new MSA for each project, is a contractual activity, not a monitoring mechanism. Option B—accepting self-attestation without verification—introduces risk and is specifically discouraged in SY0-701 because it lacks assurance. Option D, reviewing SLAs at contract start, is a one-time activity and does not provide continuous oversight.

Ongoing assessments allow organizations to detect control drift, identify new risks, and ensure vendors remain compliant with evolving regulatory and security expectations. This proactive approach is essential for managing supply chain risk and protecting organizational data.

Therefore, the correct answer is C: Conducting assessments to verify compliance with security requirements.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

AWeb Application Firewall (WAF)is designed toprotect web applications from attackssuch asCross-Site Scripting (XSS)by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between the internet and a web application.

Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW) (A)provide advanced network security but are not specifically designed to protect web applications from XSS attacks.

Unified Threat Management (UTM) (B)provides multiple security functions but lacks the specialized application-layer protection needed to mitigate XSS.

Network Access Control (NAC) (D)controls device access to the network but does not prevent web-based attacks.

AWAF is the best solutionfor protecting web servers fromXSS, SQL injection, and other web-based threats.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Operations security (OPSEC) focuses on identifying and protecting sensitive information to prevent unauthorized disclosure. In this scenario, the HR employee failed to safeguard confidential company information, leading to its exposure on social media.

Training in OPSEC would reinforce the need to maintain security best practices, such as locking screens when away from a device and ensuring that sensitive data is not exposed in unsecured locations.

Hybrid work environmentpolicies relate to managing remote and in-office work but do not specifically cover security risks like unauthorized data exposure.

Data loss prevention (DLP)deals with technology-based solutions to prevent unauthorized data transfers but does not address physical security practices.

Social engineeringrefers to deceptive tactics used by attackers to manipulate individuals, which is not applicable to this situation.

The HR employee should reviewoperations securitypolicies to prevent similar incidents in the future.

Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code analysis, code review, and code signing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2

A two-person integrity security control is implemented to minimize the risk of errors or unauthorized actions. This control ensures that at least two individuals are involved in critical operations, which helps to verify the accuracy of the process and prevents unauthorized users from acting alone. It's a security measure commonly used in sensitive operations, like financial transactions or access to critical systems, to ensure accountability and accuracy.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Security Operations and Management​.

A hot site is a fully operational data center equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity, ready for immediate use after a disaster. It allows near-zero downtime, making it ideal for critical systems needing continuous operations.

Warm sites (B) have some infrastructure but require additional setup time. Cold sites (D) provide space and power but no equipment, leading to longer recovery. Geolocation (C) is unrelated.

Hot sites are a key disaster recovery solution discussed in SY0-701's Resilience and Recovery domain【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

User Behavior Analytics (UBA)is specifically designed to detectanomalous or suspicious behaviorsby users that may indicate insider threats. UBA toolsestablish a baseline of normalbehaviorfor users and alert security teams when deviations occur (e.g., accessing sensitive files at odd hours, downloading large volumes of data, etc.).

Malicious insiders often bypass perimeter defenses like firewalls or IDS/IPS systems because they arelegitimate users. UBA offersvisibility into internal behavior patterns, which is essential for detecting these threats.

Installing a host-based content filtering solution on the endpoints ensures that web traffic is filtered locally even when the VPN connection to the on-premises proxy fails, maintaining protection for remote users.

Network access control (A) manages device network access, local gateway configuration (B) does not solve protection if VPN fails, and public NAT (C) exposes internal resources and increases risk.

Endpoint filtering complements VPN for resilient web security, covered in Security Architecture and Operations【6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems are typically configured to protect sensitive data such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII) within an organization. DLP tools enforce policies that monitor, detect, and block the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data. By leveraging the organization’s existing labeling and classification system, DLP solutions can identify and protect data based on its classification, ensuring that PII is appropriately secured according to organizational policies.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and DLP​.

Firewalls are classic examples of technical controls as they use technology to restrict or permit network traffic based on security policies. Technical controls are implemented through hardware or software solutions.

Security guards (A) and fences (C) are physical controls, while policies (B) are administrative controls.

Technical controls like firewalls are fundamental in securing network perimeters and endpoints as covered in the Security Architecture domain【6:Chapter 3†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one. The employee entered the log-in information, but received a “page not found” error message. This indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and the attacker may have captured the employee’s credentials for the payment website. References = Other Social Engineering Attacks – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack … - NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

Shadow IT refers to software, hardware, cloud services, or applications deployed without approval from the IT or security department. In this scenario, a high school department is using an unvetted simulation program—classic Shadow IT behavior.

Security+ SY0-701 explains that Shadow IT:

Introduces unknown vulnerabilities

Bypasses security controls

Creates compliance risks

Leads to data exposure

Interferes with standard configuration management

Espionage (A) involves intelligence gathering, not unauthorized software use. Data exfiltration (B) involves data theft, not unauthorized software deployment. Zero-day (D) refers to unknown vulnerabilities, not unapproved systems.

Thus, Shadow IT is the correct answer.

Encryption at rest is a strategy that protects data stored on a device, such as a laptop, by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a decryption key or password. Encryption at rest can prevent data loss on stolen laptops by preventing unauthorized access to the data, even if the device is physically compromised. Encryption at rest can also help comply with data privacy regulations and standards that require data protection. Masking, data classification, and permission restrictions are other strategies that can help protect data, but they may not be sufficient or applicable for data stored on laptops. Masking is a technique that obscures sensitive data elements, such as credit card numbers, with random characters or symbols, but it is usually used for data in transit or in use, not at rest. Data classification is a process that assigns labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact, but it does not protect the data itself. Permission restrictions are rules that define who can access, modify, or delete data, but they may not prevent unauthorized access if the laptop is stolen and the security controls are bypassed. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17-18, 372-373

In Security+ governance terminology, the person who implements and operationalizes requirements like data retention standards on systems is typically acting as a data custodian. Data custodians are the individuals or teams responsible for the secure safekeeping and handling of information, carrying out the controls that protect data in day-to-day operations. The study guide explains that custodians do not set the business purpose for the data; instead, they are responsible for safeguarding it and enforcing the required protections when a controller/owner delegates those responsibilities .

By contrast, the data owner (or “data controller” in privacy-law terminology) is the role that determines why the data is processed and establishes expectations such as classification decisions and high-level handling requirements (which commonly include retention expectations as part of governance). Owners/controllers may delegate implementation tasks but remain accountable for decisions about the data . A data processor is usually a third-party service provider processing personal information on behalf of the controller—this does not fit the scenario because the IT administrator is an internal implementer rather than an outsourced processing entity . Finally, a privacy officer (or data protection officer) leads and coordinates organizational privacy efforts at a program level, ensuring privacy objectives are met, but they are not typically the role directly configuring enterprise applications to enforce retention standards .

This aligns with the SY0-701 governance model where policies define intent and standards define mandatory implementation requirements, while technical teams (custodians) put those requirements into practice .

Memory injectionoccurs whenmalicious code is written into the memory space of a running process, allowing it to execute without writing anything to disk. This is often used infileless malware attacks, making detection harder.

A (privilege escalation)describes a race condition, not memory injection.

B (unexpected data causing execution)describes abuffer overflow attack, not memory injection.

D (overwriting an executable)is apersistence technique, but it is not an example of in-memory injection.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Hashing is the process used to verify file integrity. When transferring a file between devices, a hash value (such as SHA-256) is generated before the transfer and then recomputed afterward. If the two hash values match, the file has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during transmission.

Authentication (A) verifies identity, not file integrity. Obfuscation (B) hides meaning but does not detect modification. Encryption (D) protects confidentiality but does not guarantee integrity unless combined with hashing or digital signatures.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 covers hashing under cryptographic functions used for integrity verification. Hash algorithms ensure that even a single byte change results in a completely different hash value (the avalanche effect). This makes hashing the standard method for verifying the integrity of transferred files, software downloads, backups, and system images.

 A firewall rule is a set of criteria that determines whether to allow or deny a packet to pass through the firewall. A firewall rule consists of several elements, such as the action, the protocol, the source address, the destination address, and the port number. The syntax of a firewall rule may vary depending on the type and vendor of the firewall, but the basic logic is the same. In this question, the security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from accessing the organization’s network. This means that the action should be deny, the protocol should be any (or ig for IP), the source address should be 10.1.4.9/32 (which means a single IP address), the destination address should be 0.0.0.0/0 (which means any IP address), and the port number should be any. Therefore, the correct firewall rule is:

access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0

This rule will match any packet that has the source IP address of 10.1.4.9 and drop it. The other options are incorrect because they either have the wrong action, the wrong source address, or the wrong destination address. For example, option A has the source and destination addresses reversed, which means that it will block any packet that has the destination IP address of 10.1.4.9, which is not the intended goal. Option C has the wrong action, which is permit, which means that it will allow the packet to pass through the firewall, which is also not the intended goal. Option D has the same problem as option A, with the source and destination addresses reversed.

References = Firewall Rules – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 1.2, Firewalls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501, Understanding Firewall Rules – CompTIA Network+ N10-005: 5.5, Configuring Windows Firewall – CompTIA A+ 220-1102 – 1.6.

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) allows a company to host desktop environments on a centralized server. Offshore teams can access these virtual desktops remotely, ensuring that sensitive data stays within the company’s infrastructure without the need to provide physical devices to the team. This solution is ideal for maintaining data security while enabling remote work, as all data processing occurs on the company's secure servers.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: VDI is discussed as a method for securely managing remote access to company resources without compromising data security​​.

To block signature-based attacks, the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) must be in active mode. In this mode, the IPS can actively monitor and block malicious traffic in real time based on predefined signatures. This is the best mode to prevent known attack types from reaching the internal network.

Monitor mode and sensor mode are typically passive, meaning they only observe and log traffic without actively blocking it.

Audit mode is used for review purposes and does not actively block traffic​​​.

A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1.

SSO stands for single sign-on, which is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple applications or services with one set of credentials. SSO reduces the number of credentials employees need to maintain and simplifies the login process. SSO can also improve security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and credential theft. SSO can be implemented using various protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, OpenID Connect, and Kerberos, that enable the exchange of authentication information between different domains or systems. SSO is commonly used for accessing SaaS applications, such as Office 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, and others, using domain credentials123.

B. LEAP stands for Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides authentication for wireless networks. LEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials4.

C. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of authentication that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity. MFA can enhance security by adding an extra layer of protection beyond passwords, such as tokens, biometrics, or codes. MFA is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials, but it can be used in conjunction with SSO.

D. PEAP stands for Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a protocol that provides secure authentication for wireless networks. PEAP uses TLS to create an encrypted tunnel between the client and the server, and then uses another authentication method, such as MS-CHAPv2 or EAP-GTC, to verify the user’s identity. PEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials.

References = 1: Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Study Guide | CompTIA IT Certifications 2: What is Single Sign-On (SSO)? - Definition from WhatIs.com 3: Single sign-on - Wikipedia 4: Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol - Wikipedia : What is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? - Definition from WhatIs.com : Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol - Wikipedia

Tokenization is widely used in the financial industry to mask sensitive information such as credit card numbers, bank account details, or payment tokens. Tokenization replaces sensitive data with harmless surrogate values (tokens) that maintain format and usability but reveal nothing if intercepted.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights tokenization as a preferred method for PCI-DSS-regulated environments because:

It reduces exposure of actual sensitive data

It lowers compliance scope

Tokens can be mapped back to real data only through a secure token vault

It prevents attackers from accessing meaningful information

Hashing (B) is one-way and cannot be reversed, making it unsuitable for financial transactions that require retrieving original values. Salting (C) enhances password hashing security but does not mask data. Steganography (D) hides data inside images or media files, not used for structured data protection.

Thus, the correct answer is A: Tokenization.

Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identicalpasswords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References =

Passwords technical overview

Encryption, hashing, salting – what’s the difference?

Salt (cryptography)

The log entries show repeated attempts to access directories using patterns such as ../, which is a common directory traversal attack technique. Directory traversal (or path traversal) aims to access files and directories outside the web server's root directory by manipulating file paths. The ../ sequence is used to move up one directory level, which attackers exploit to try and retrieve sensitive files.

 A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.1, video by Professor Messer.

Upgrading end-of-support operating systemsisone of the most effective ways to reduce the attack surface. Unsupported OS versionsno longer receive security patches, making them prime targets for attackers.Removing outdated softwareensures that known vulnerabilities cannot be exploited.

A (honeynet)is used for threat analysis, not reducing the attack surface.

B (Group Policy)helps enforce security policies butdoes not address outdated vulnerabilities.

C (High availability)focuses on uptime, not security risk reduction.

The Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is most useful in determining whether the long-term cost to transfer a risk is less than the impact of the risk. ALE is calculated by multiplying the SingleLoss Expectancy (SLE) by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO), which provides an estimate of the annual expected loss due to a specific risk, making it valuable for long-term financial planning and risk management decisions.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

Air-gapping is the most effective way to protect an application server running unsupported software from network threats. By physically isolating the server from any network connection (no wired or wireless communication), it is protected from external cyber threats. While other options like port security or a screened subnet can provide some level of protection, an air gap offers the highest level of security by preventing any network-based attacks entirely.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure System Design​.

Multicloud architectures use two or more IaaS providers (e.g., AWS + Azure + GCP) to distribute workloads, increase redundancy, and reduce single points of failure. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes multicloud strategies for enhancing:

Resilience

Availability

Fault tolerance

Geographic redundancy

Vendor independence

The question specifies:

Critical VMs

Hosted across different IaaS providers

Still maintained by internal application owners

This perfectly matches a multicloud deployment, where organizations maintain control over VM configuration while leveraging multiple cloud vendors for resilience.

SaaS provider diversity (B) applies to application services, not internally managed VMs.

On-prem load balancing (C) does not involve cloud providers.

Corporate-owned off-site locations (D) refer to DR sites, not multi-vendor cloud hosting.

Thus, A: Multicloud architectures is the correct answer.

Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, andantivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.

Data classification is the process of assigning labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact. Different organizations and sectors may have different data classification schemes, but a common one is the following1:

Public: Data that can be freely disclosed to anyone without any harm or risk.

Private: Data that is intended for internal use only and may cause some harm or risk if disclosed.

Confidential: Data that is intended for authorized use only and may cause significant harm or risk if disclosed.

Restricted: Data that is intended for very limited use only and may cause severe harm or risk if disclosed.

In this scenario, the company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. This data is likely to be classified as confidential and restricted, because it is not meant for public or private use, and it may cause serious damage to national security or public safety if disclosed. The government may also have specific requirements or regulations for handling such data, such as encryption, access control, and auditing2. References: 1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17 2: Data Classification Practices: Final Project Description Released

Zero Trust architecture is based on the principle of "never trust, always verify," meaning all traffic between systems must be authenticated and authorized before communication is allowed, regardless of network location.

Policy enforcement (A) is important but broader. Authentication (B) is a component of Zero Trust, and confidentiality (D) refers to data protection, not access validation.

Zero Trust is a modern security framework emphasized in Security Architecture for securing enterprise environments【6:Chapter 3†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page 10.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

The first step in securing a newly deployed server is toclose unnecessary service ports. Open ports can expose the server to unauthorized access and potential cyber threats. By closing unused ports, the attack surface is reduced, limiting the number of entry points available to attackers.

Updating the software version (B)andupgrading the OS version (D)are important security measures but should follow the step of securing open ports to prevent immediate exposure to threats.

Adding the device to the Access Control List (ACL) (C)is a step in network security but does not directly secure the server itself against potential attacks.

Closing unnecessary ports helps in minimizing the risk of network-based attacks, such asport scanning and exploitation of default services.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is the best solution to allow remote employees secure access to company resources without interception concerns. A VPN establishes an encrypted tunnel over the internet, ensuring that data transferred between remote employees and the company is secure from eavesdropping.

Proxy server helps with web content filtering and anonymization but does not provide encrypted access.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) enhances security but is not the primary tool for enabling remote access.

Security zone is a network segmentation technique but does not provide remote access capabilities​​​.

"Typosquatting, also known as URL hijacking, is a form of cybersquatting where attackers register domain names that are intentionally similar to legitimate ones, often differing by a single character or a common typographical error. For example, an attacker might register 'wwww.company.com ' to mimic 'www.company.com, ' tricking users who mistype the URL into visiting a malicious site. This attack exploits human error and can be used to steal credentials, distribute malware, or impersonate the legitimate entity."

Hardening access to a new database system requires implementing controls that restrict and secure how administrators and applications connect to the database. A jump server (A) is a hardened intermediary system used to manage access to sensitive systems such as databases. By forcing administrators to authenticate through a controlled, monitored jump host instead of connecting directly, organizations reduce attack surfaces and prevent unauthorized lateral movement. Security+ SY0-701 identifies jump servers as critical in securing high-value systems.

A host-based firewall (E) provides system-level traffic filtering directly on the database server. It allows only trusted IPs, ports, and services to communicate with the database, significantly reducing exposure. This is an essential hardening measure because databases should only accept connections from specific application servers or administrative hosts.

NIDS (B) monitors traffic but does not harden access. Monitoring (C) provides visibility but does not restrict access. A proxy server (D) is not typically used for database access. A WAF (F) protects web applications, not internal database systems.

Thus, A (Jump server) and E (Host-based firewall) are the correct hardening controls.

Using two different cloud solutions to store data is an example of platform diversity, which helps reduce dependency on a single cloud provider and enhances resilience against vendor-specific failures or outages.

Load balancing (A) distributes workloads across resources; parallel processing (B) refers to simultaneous processing of tasks; clustering (D) involves grouping servers to act as a single system.

Platform diversity is a recognized architectural strategy to improve availability and fault tolerance, covered in Security Architecture concepts for SY0-701【6:Chapter 10†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Threat hunting is a proactive security activity focused on identifying hidden or undetected threats within an environment, even when no alerts or indicators have been triggered. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, threat hunting assumes that attackers may already be present and actively evading traditional security controls such as SIEMs, IDS/IPS, or endpoint protection tools.

Threat hunting involves manually analyzing logs, endpoint telemetry, network traffic, and behavioral patterns to uncover anomalies that automated systems may miss. This aligns directly with the scenario, where the analyst has a suspicion of malicious actors but no alerts confirming activity. Threat hunting helps identify advanced persistent threats (APTs), living-off-the-land techniques, credential misuse, and lateral movement that may not generate immediate alerts.

Digital forensics (B) is typically performed after an incident has been confirmed. Vulnerability scanning (C) identifies weaknesses but does not detect active attackers. E-discovery (D) is a legal process for collecting electronically stored information and is not used for threat detection.

Because the analyst is proactively searching for hidden threats without existing alerts, the correct action is A: Threat hunting.

Centralized authentication (such as Active Directory or LDAP) combined with proper password policies helps prevent the reuse of the same local credentials across multiple systems, reducing the risk of lateral movement during attacks like credential reuse or pass-the-hash.

Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to injectcommands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.

Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.

Detailed Explanation:

Time-of-day restrictions limit access to corporate systems based on predefined schedules. This ensures employees can only access resources during their assigned work hours. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Models"​​.

Detailed Explanation:An unskilled attacker, often referred to as a script kiddie, is likely to engage in website defacement. This type of attack typically requires minimal expertise and is often conducted for notoriety. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Threat Actors and Motivations"​​.

 A cold site is a type of backup data center that has the necessary infrastructure to support IT operations, but does not have any pre-configured hardware or software. A cold site is the cheapest option among the backup data center types, but it also has the longest recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO) values. A cold site is suitable for scenarios where the cost-benefit is the primary requirement and the RTO and RPO values are not very stringent. A cold site can take up to two days or more to restore the normal operations after a disaster. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387; Backup Types – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.5, video at 4:50.

An air-gapped system is physically isolated from unsecured networks (like the public Internet), ensuring that there is no direct or indirect network connection. This is the most effective way to prevent Internet-based access to sensitive systems.

An SLA (Service-Level Agreement) defines the expected performance, availability, uptime, response times, and responsibilities between a provider and a client. The requirement in the scenario—“97% uptime”—is a classic example of an SLA metric. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that SLAs outline measurable service expectations so the client can assess compliance and performance.

A BPA (A) outlines business partnership terms, not performance uptime. An MOU (B) documents mutual understanding but is not legally binding and does not include uptime metrics. An NDA (C) protects confidentiality, not availability or service guarantees.

Thus, the correct answer is D: SLA.

A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing, malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters, videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center, and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does not involve the security awareness of the users and employees. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usuallyperformed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Security Awareness and Training – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.

The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of authentication factors satisfies the manager’s goal of implementing multifactor authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you are.

Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a security question. A password is a common example of something you know that can be used to access a VPN12

Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be used to access a VPN12

Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the user’s identity to access a VPN12

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized way to rate the severity of software vulnerabilities. Organizations use CVSS scores to prioritize which vulnerabilities to address first, focusing on those with the highest risk.

The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 931

Group policies can inadvertently introduce misconfigurations, such as enabling insecure settings or failing to disable legacy protocols, increasing vulnerabilities.

Zero-day (B) are previously unknown vulnerabilities, malicious updates (C) are attacker-controlled, and supply chain (D) risks come from third-party components.

Misconfiguration vulnerabilities are commonly introduced during changes and are emphasized in Security Operations【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual endpoint and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules. A host-based firewall can help to mitigate the threat posed by suspicious connections between internal endpoints by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, port, protocol, or application. A host-based firewall is different from a web application firewall, which is a type of firewall that protects web applications from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and session hijacking. A host-based firewall is also different from an access control list, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources, such as files, folders, printers, or routers. A host-based firewall is also different from an application allow list, which is a list of applications that are authorized to run on an endpoint, preventing unauthorized or maliciousapplications from executing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 254

Detailed Explanation:Load balancing improves application availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers. If one server fails, traffic is automatically routed to other available servers with minimal intervention. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "High Availability Solutions"​​.

= SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server. SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application vulnerabilities. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 195. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 8.

Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2

A full inventory of all hardware and software is essential for measuring the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, because it allows the security analyst to identify which systems are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts. Without a full inventory, the security analyst may miss some vulnerable systems or waste time and resources on irrelevant ones. Documentation of system classifications, a list of system owners and their departments, and third-party risk assessment documentation are all useful for risk management, but they are not sufficient to measure the impact of a new vulnerability. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative3

Adding a random string of characters, known as a "salt," to a password before hashing it is known as salting. This technique strengthens passwords by ensuring that even if two users have the same password, their hashes will be different due to the unique salt, making it much harder for attackers to crack passwords using precomputed tables.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

This example of a script injection attack would be best mitigated by input sanitization. Input sanitization involves cleaning or filtering user inputs to ensure that they do not contain harmful data, such as malicious scripts. This prevents attackers from executing script-based attacks (e.g., Cross-Site Scripting or XSS).

Nmap command is unrelated to input sanitization, as it is a network scanning tool.

Email phishing attempts require different mitigations, such as user training.

Browser warnings about insecure connections involve encryption protocols, not input validation​

The scenario shows MD5 hashed password values. The most likely reason the security administrator is focusing on these values is to protect against pass-the-hash attacks. In this type of attack, an attacker can use a captured hash to authenticate without needing to know the actual plaintext password. By managing and monitoring these hashes, the administrator can implement strategies to mitigate this type of threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based exercise where stakeholders gather to walk through the roles and responsibilities they would have during a specific situation, such as a security incident or disaster. This type of exercise is designed to identify gaps in planning and improve coordination among team members without the need for physical execution.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of security operations and disaster recovery planning​​.

The first step in reducing the number of credentials each employee must maintain when using multiple SaaS applications is to select an Identity Provider (IdP). An IdP provides a centralized authentication service that supports Single Sign-On (SSO), enabling users to access multiple applications with a single set of credentials.

Enabling SAML would be part of the technical implementation but comes after selecting an IdP.

OAuth tokens are used for authorization, but selecting an IdP is the first step in managing authentication.

Password vaulting stores multiple passwords securely but doesn't reduce the need for separate logins​​.

Attempting to enter an unauthorized area using an access badge during a penetration test is an example of a physical test. This type of test evaluates the effectiveness of physical security controls, such as access badges, security guards, and locks, in preventing unauthorized access to restricted areas.

Defensive and offensive testing typically refer to digital or network-based penetration testing strategies.

Passive testing involves observing or monitoring but not interacting with the environment​​.

Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a key metric used to estimate the average time required to repair a failed component or system and restore it to operational status. In this case, the administrator would rely on MTTR to estimate how long it will take to fix the critical server’s failed drive and get it back online.

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) measures the expected operational lifespan between failures, so it does not provide an estimate of repair time.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) refers to the maximum allowable downtime for a system or service before unacceptable impact occurs, which is a planning metric rather than an actual repair time measure.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time and relates to backup frequency rather than repair duration.

Therefore, MTTR is the appropriate metric to estimate the time to fix a failed drive. This concept is detailed in the Resilience and Physical Security chapter within the Security Operations domain of the SY0-701 exam【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is an example of a managerial control. Managerial controls are policies and procedures that govern an organization's operations, ensuring security through directives and rules. The AUP defines acceptable behavior and usage of company resources, setting guidelines for employees.

Physical controls refer to security measures like locks, fences, or security guards.

Technical controls involve security mechanisms such as firewalls or encryption.

Operational controls are procedures for maintaining security, such as backup and recovery plans​​.

E-discovery (electronic discovery) is the process of identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) in response to a legal request or investigation. It is a critical component of digital forensics when dealing with litigation, compliance, or regulatory matters.

A group policy object (GPO) is a mechanism for applying configuration settings to computers and users in an Active Directory domain. By pushing a GPO update, the systems administrator can quickly and uniformly enforce the new password policy across all systems in the domain. Deploying PowerShell scripts, enabling PAP, and updating EDR profiles are not the most efficient or effective ways to change the password policy within an enterprise environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 115; Password Policy - Windows Security

A self-signed certificate is generated internally without involving an external Certificate Authority (CA). In a self-signed certificate, the certificate issuer and certificate subject are the same entity. Security+ SY0-701 explains that organizations frequently use self-signed certificates for internal systems, lab environments, or testing scenarios where external trust chains are unnecessary.

A digital signature (A) is a cryptographic function, not a certificate. Asymmetric keys (B) are used in public-key cryptography but do not constitute a certificate by themselves. Symmetric keys (D) are encryption tools, not certificates.

Therefore, the example of a certificate generated internally is C: Self-signed.

Since the logs on the endpoint were deleted, the next best option for the analyst is to examine firewall logs. Firewall logs can reveal external communication, including outbound traffic to a command-and-control (C2) server. These logs would contain information about the IP addresses, ports, and protocols used, which can help in identifying suspicious connections.

IPS logs may provide information about network intrusions, but firewall logs are better for tracking communication patterns.

ACL logs (Access Control List) are useful for tracking access permissions but not for identifying C2 communication.

Windows security logs would have been ideal if they had not been deleted

SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems commonly manage industrial equipment, including PLCs (Programmable Logic Controllers). Historically, SCADA environments often lack encryption for management traffic due to legacy equipment and protocols. This makes SCADA the most likely environment where unencrypted PLC management traffic can be observed.

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.

A change management procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that a security administrator should adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules. A firewall is a device or software that can filter, block, or allow network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall rule is a statement that defines the criteria and action for a firewall to apply to a packet or a connection. For example, a firewall rule can allow or deny traffic based on the source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, or applications. Setting up a new set of firewall rules is a type of change that can affect the security, performance, and functionality of the network. Therefore, a change management procedure is necessary to ensure that the change is planned, tested, approved, implemented, documented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. A change management procedure typically includes the following elements:

A change request that describes the purpose, scope, impact, and benefits of the change, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the change owner, implementer, and approver.

A change assessment that evaluates the feasibility, risks, costs, and dependencies of the change, as well as the alternatives and contingency plans.

A change approval that authorizes the change to proceed to the implementation stage, based on the criteria and thresholds defined by the change policy.

A change implementation that executes the change according to the plan and schedule, and verifies the results and outcomes of the change.

A change documentation that records the details and status of the change, as well as the lessons learned and best practices.

A change review that monitors and measures the performance and effectiveness of the change, and identifies any issues or gaps that need to be addressed or improved.

A change management procedure is important for a security administrator to adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules, as it can help to achieve the following objectives:

Enhance the security posture and compliance of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are aligned with the security policies and standards, and that they do not introduce any vulnerabilities or conflicts.

Minimize the disruption and downtime of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are tested and validated before deployment, and that they do not affect the availability or functionality of the network services or applications.

Improve the efficiency and quality of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are optimized and updated according to the changing needs and demands of the network users and stakeholders, and that they do not cause any performance or compatibility issues.

Increase the accountability and transparency of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are documented and reviewed regularly, and that they are traceable and auditable by the relevant authorities and parties.

The other options are not correct because they are not related to the process of setting up a new set of firewall rules. A disaster recovery plan is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. An incident response procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that aim to contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from a security incident, such as a cyberattack, data breach, or malware infection. A business continuity plan is a set of strategies and actions that aim to maintain the essential functions and operations of an organization during and after a disruptive event, such as a pandemic, power outage, or civil unrest. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.3: Security Operations, video: Change Management (5:45).

ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is an analysis element that measures the frequency or likelihood of an event happening in a given year. ARO is often used in risk assessment and management, as it helps to estimate the potential loss or impact of an event. A company can use ARO to calculate the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of an event, which is the product of ARO and the single loss expectancy (SLE). ALE represents the expected cost of an event per year, and can be used to compare with the cost of implementing a security control or purchasing an insurance policy.

The company most likely used ARO in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. The company may have estimated the ARO of ransomware attacks based on historical data, industry trends, or threat intelligence, and found that the ARO was low or negligible. The company may have also calculated the ALE of ransomware attacks, and found that the ALE was lower than the cost of the insurance policy. Therefore, the company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks, as it deemed the risk to be acceptable or manageable.

IMTTR (Incident Management Team Training and Readiness), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are not analysis elements that the company most likely used in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. IMTTR is a process of preparing and training the incident management team to respond effectively to security incidents. IMTTR does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the capability and readiness of the team. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption. RTO does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the availability and continuity of the system or service. MTBF is a metric that measures the average time between failures of a system or component. MTBF does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the reliability and performance of the system or component.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97-98; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.2 - Risk Management, 0:00 - 3:00.

A false negative occurs when a security control or scanning tool fails to detect a vulnerability that actually exists. In vulnerability scanning, this means the scan reports a system as secure even though it is vulnerable. Therefore, a result that shows no known vulnerability is an example of a false negative if a vulnerability is present but undetected.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 explains that false negatives are particularly dangerous because they provide a false sense of security, potentially leaving systems exposed to exploitation. Causes of false negatives include outdated vulnerability signatures, misconfigured scanners, credentialed scan failures, or unsupported legacy systems.

Option A describes a false positive, where a vulnerability is reported but does not exist. Option B may indicate an outdated scan result, not necessarily a false negative. Option D is incorrect because zero-day vulnerabilities do not have known remediations and are typically not detected by signature-based scanners.

Thus, the correct example of a false negative is C: A result that shows no known vulnerability.

An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 9: Network Security, page 449 1

An unknown environment in penetration testing, also known as a black-box test, simulates an actual external attack where the tester has no prior knowledge of the system. This type of penetration test is designed to mimic real-world attack scenarios, where an attacker has little to no information about the target environment. The tester must rely on various reconnaissance and attack techniques to uncover vulnerabilities, much like a real-world attacker would. This approach helps organizations understand their security posture from an external perspective, providing insights into how their defenses would hold up against a true outsider threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course highlights the importance of understanding different penetration testing environments, including black-box testing, which aligns with the "unknown environment" in the provided answer.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: The guide details penetration testing methodologies, including black-box testing, which is crucial for simulating real external attacks​​​.

Encryption is a reversible process that transforms cleartext data into ciphertext to protect confidentiality. It uses cryptographic keys to both encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring that only authorized parties can access the original data.

Hashing, on the other hand, is a one-way function that converts data into a fixed-length hash value or checksum. Hashing is primarily used to verify data integrity by detecting changes, since any modification in the input will produce a different hash output. Unlike encryption, hashing cannot be reversed to obtain the original data.

While encryption can protect data both at rest and in transit, hashing does not protect data confidentiality but supports integrity verification. Public-key exchange is a cryptographic mechanism within asymmetric encryption but is unrelated to hashing key usage.

This distinction is thoroughly explained in the Cryptography chapter of the SY0-701 syllabus【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines what users are permitted and prohibited from doing on an organization's systems, including website access. Accessing unauthorized sites is a common violation of the AUP.

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a security protocol used to encrypt and authenticate the streaming of audio and video over IP networks. It ensures that the video streams from the IP cameras are both encrypted to prevent unauthorized access and authenticated to verify the integrity of the stream, making it the ideal choice for securing video surveillance.

Detailed Explanation:The activity described in the table, where multiple connection attempts are made on port 445 (used for SMB services), suggests a brute-force attack. The attacker likely used automated methods to guess credentials, causing multiple failures. Such attempts are ahallmark of brute-force attacks targeting shared resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Indicators of Malicious Activity"​​.

Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches orvulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.

Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.

Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans​​.

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) platforms enable security teams to automate workflows, prioritize alerts, and manage remediation activities, helping to handle the volume of cloud misconfiguration alerts efficiently.

CASB (A) provides visibility and control for cloud services but is less focused on orchestration. IAM (B) manages identities and permissions, and XDR (D) is extended detection but does not provide workflow automation.

SOAR integration is critical for cloud security operations discussed in Security Operations【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

The correct answer is Accept because knowingly choosing not to address identified vulnerabilities is a formal example of risk acceptance. In the Security+ SY0-701 risk management framework, accepting risk means that leadership is aware of a vulnerability and its potential impact but decides to take no corrective action. This decision is typically based on factors such as cost, operational constraints, low likelihood of exploitation, or limited business impact.

Risk acceptance is a deliberate management decision, not an oversight. When a Chief Information Security Officer ignores known vulnerabilities identified during a risk assessment, the organization is implicitly acknowledging the risk and choosing to tolerate it. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that risk acceptance must be informed and approved by appropriate leadership, as accountability remains with the organization if the risk materializes.

Option A, Transfer, is incorrect because transferring risk involves shifting responsibility to a third party, such as purchasing cyber insurance or outsourcing services. Option B, Avoid, refers to eliminating risk entirely by discontinuing the risky activity, system, or process. Option C, Mitigate, involves implementing security controls to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk, such as patching vulnerabilities or adding compensating controls.

Accepting risk does not mean the vulnerability is harmless; it means leadership has determined that addressing it is not justified at that time. The SY0-701 objectives highlight that accepted risks should be documented, reviewed periodically, and reassessed as conditions change, especially if threat likelihood or business impact increases.

In summary, ignoring known vulnerabilities after a risk assessment reflects a conscious decision to tolerate potential loss rather than reduce or eliminate it. This aligns directly with the risk acceptance strategy, making Option D the correct answer.

Serverless architecture allows companies to deploy code without managing the underlying infrastructure. This approach significantly reduces the time and expense involved in code deployment because developers can focus solely on writing code, while the cloud provider manages the servers, scaling, and maintenance. Serverless computing also enables automatic scaling and pay-per-execution billing, which further optimizes costs.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course covers cloud technologies, including serverless architectures, which are highlighted as a method to streamline and reduce costs associated with code deployment​​​.

Bug bounty programs invite vetted external researchers to report software vulnerabilities in exchange for rewards. According to Security+ SY0-701, two major benefits are:

(1) Reduction in the number of zero-day vulnerabilities (B) – Ethical hackers can discover unknown vulnerabilities before malicious attackers do. These vulnerabilities are often zero-days because they are unknown to vendors at the time of discovery. Bug bounty programs surface these issues early, helping organizations mitigate severe risks proactively.

(2) Quicker discovery of vulnerabilities (E) – A distributed network of global security researchers can identify vulnerabilities far faster than an internal team alone. This accelerates detection, increases coverage, and lowers attacker dwell time.

Option A (Transference of risk) is incorrect because bug bounties do not transfer risk—they help identify vulnerabilities. C (Security awareness) relates to internal training, not bug bounties. D (Reduced cost) is misleading; bug bounties can be expensive depending on payout structure. F (Patch management) does not directly improve through bug bounty programs.

Therefore, the correct benefits are B and E.

Typosquatting is a social engineering and cybersquatting technique in which attackers register domain names similar to legitimate ones, hoping users will make a typographical error and visit their malicious website instead.

Detailed Explanation:The acquisition phase involves creating forensic images (exact replicas) of storage devices or memory to ensure data integrity for further analysis. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Forensic Imaging and Chain of Custody"​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The described scenario is CYOD (Choose Your Own Device). In a CYOD model, employees may choose from a list of company-approved devices. These devices are vetted for compatibility, security, and organizational standards while still providing some flexibility to employees.

The SY0-701 exam differentiates CYOD from other mobile deployment models:

COPE (D) – Company-Owned, Personally Enabled: devices are company-owned and fully managed, but employees can use them personally.

MDM (A) – Mobile Device Management: a tool, not a deployment model, used for managing configurations and security on devices.

PED (C) – Portable Electronic Device: a generic category, not a deployment strategy.

CYOD strikes a balance between employee preference and maintaining a secure, standardized environment. It reduces risk associated with BYOD while avoiding the rigidity of COPE. CYOD also supports consistent patching, support, and security enforcement because all devices meet the organization’s baseline criteria.

This aligns with the Security Architecture section of SY0-701, where the exam stresses secure device deployment strategies and maintaining uniform controls over endpoint assets.

 Root cause analysis is a process of identifying and resolving the underlying factors that led to an incident. By conducting root cause analysis as part of incident response, security professionals can learn from the incident and implement corrective actions to prevent future incidents of the same nature. For example, if the root cause of a data breach was a weak password policy, the security team can enforce a stronger password policy and educate users on the importance of password security. Root cause analysis can also help to improve security processes, policies, and procedures, and to enhance security awareness and culture within the organization. Root cause analysis is not meant to gather loCs (indicators of compromise) for the investigation, as this is a task performed during the identification and analysis phases of incident response. Root cause analysis is also not meant to discover which systems have been affected or to eradicate any trace of malware on the network, as these are tasks performed during the containment and eradicationphases of incident response. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 424-425; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.1 - Incident Response, 9:55 - 11:18.

Cross-site scripting (XSS) occurs when a web application fails to properly validate or sanitize user input, allowing attackers to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. The most effective remediation is input validation, which ensures that only safe, expected data is accepted by the application.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights input validation as a primary defense against:

XSS

SQL injection

Command injection

Path traversal attacks

By validating and sanitizing input at both the client and server layers, organizations can strip harmful characters, block script tags, enforce strict data types, and ensure proper encoding.

A NGFW (B) or WAF (D) can mitigate attacks by blocking malicious payloads, but they do not fix the root cause within the web application. A vulnerability scan (C) identifies the issue but does not remediate it.

Therefore, only input validation (A) directly resolves the underlying coding flaw responsible for XSS.

Effective change management requires structured planning, testing, review, approval, deployment, and rollback capabilities. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, one of the most critical components of change management is having a backout plan, which allows the organization to safely revert changes if the update or patch causes issues, operational disruption, or security instability. A proper backout plan reduces downtime, maintains system availability, and protects against unexpected failures.

Approving a change after deployment (A) violates standard change management protocols. Approval must occur before live implementation. Using a spreadsheet (C) is not considered an effective or secure change management mechanism. Automatic bypassing of change controls (D) is dangerous, even for security patches, because changes must be tested to avoid service outages or unintended vulnerabilities.

Therefore, the best description of effective change management is B: Having a backout plan when a patch fails.

Hashing produces a fixed-length fingerprint of the script’s contents. By comparing the current hash with a known good hash, the engineer can verify if the script has been altered. Hashing is a one-way function used to validate integrity.

Masking (A) hides data, obfuscation (B) hides code logic, and encryption (D) protects confidentiality but does not verify integrity as simply.

Integrity checking through hashing is fundamental in General Security Concepts【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

 A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.

Port security is the best mitigation technique for preventing an attacker from flooding the MAC address table of network switches. Port security can limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a port, preventing an attacker from overwhelming the switch's MAC table (a form of MAC flooding attack). When the allowed number of MAC addresses is exceeded, port security can block additional devices or trigger alerts.

Load balancer distributes network traffic but does not address MAC flooding attacks.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) detects and prevents attacks but isn't specifically designed for MAC flooding mitigation.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) offers advanced traffic inspection but is not directly involved in MAC table security​​​.

Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. References = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.

Detailed Explanation:The correct sequence is to first establish secure baselines by determining the required configurations, deploy those configurations across systems, and finally maintain the configurations through regular updates and auditing. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Secure Baseline Development"​​.

Theprimary goal of corrective controls in financial systems is to ensure that errors do not propagate across interconnected systems. Financial transactions are ofteninterdependent, meaning one incorrect or unauthorized change can affect multiple systems. Regulations often mandate these controls tomaintain accuracy and prevent cascading failures.

A (insider threats altering banking details)is a concern, but thisscenario focuses on corrective controls, not insider threats specifically.

C (business insurance)is unrelated to why corrective controls are implemented.

D (preventing unauthorized changes)falls underpreventive, notcorrectivecontrols.

Management review is a critical step in the change management process. Before implementing any design change, management reviews help evaluate the potential impact, security implications, and alignment with organizational goals and policies. This review ensures that the change is justified, risks are understood, and proper approvals are obtained.

Load testing is a performance test, maintenance notifications are communication steps, and procedure updates are documentation activities — all important but generally occur after management has approved the change.

The significance of management involvement in change governance is a foundational concept in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of the SY0-701 exam【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

 Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing it. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the message or document. References = Non-repudiation – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 1.2, CompTIA Security+ SY0-301: 6.1 – Non-repudiation, CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 2.

Automated vulnerability scanningis thefirst step in identifying system weaknesses. These scans systematically check for outdated software, misconfigurations, and known vulnerabilities in a network.

Penetration testing (B)is conducted after vulnerabilities are identified.

Threat hunting (C)focuses on detecting unknown threats, not listing vulnerabilities.

Aconflict of interest (B)arises when personal relationships or interests could potentially influence professional decisions. In this case, the CFO's friendship with the vendor could improperly affect the procurement decision-making process.

This scenario falls underDomain 5.3: Explain the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls—specifically under“Personnel policies (e.g., conflict of interest, mandatory vacations, job rotation).”

To establish an encrypted connection (such as HTTPS/TLS) with an externally facing web server, the server must deploy a public key as part of its digital certificate. Clients use the server’s public key to initiate secure communication, which is validated by certificate authorities. The server holds the matching private key, but it is the public key that must be made available for encrypted connections to be established.

One of the primary advantages of SIEM tools is their ability to correlate events across multiple hosts and devices to identify patterns that may indicate coordinated attacks or advanced threats. Reviewing logs for correlations helps detect complex incidents that might be missed when looking at individual systems.

Checking password resets (A) and monitoring DDoS (B) are possible but less common primary reasons. Assessing privacy breach scope (C) is usually done post-incident, not typically during initial SIEM log reviews.

Log correlation capabilities are a core SIEM feature described in Security Operations【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

This scenario describes a bug bounty program, which invites external security researchers to responsibly identify and report vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 defines bug bounty programs as structured initiatives that reward researchers for discovering and disclosing security flaws before they can be exploited by malicious actors.

Bug bounty programs extend security testing beyond internal teams and provide continuous, real-world testing of public-facing assets. They are particularly effective for identifying zero-day vulnerabilities, logic flaws, and edge-case issues that automated tools may miss.

Red teaming (B) is a controlled, internal or contracted adversarial exercise, not an open invitation. Open-source intelligence (C) involves gathering publicly available information, not vulnerability reporting. Third-party information sharing (D) refers to sharing threat intelligence, not soliciting vulnerability reports.

Because the CISO is inviting the broader security community to report vulnerabilities, the correct answer is A: Bug bounty.